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FIITJEE Solutions to AIEEE – 2008
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AIEEE–2008, PAPER(C−5)
Note: (i) The test is of 3 hours duration.
(ii) The test consists of 105 questions of 3 marks each. The maximum marks are 315.
(iii) There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct
response.
Part A − Mathematics (105 marks) − 35 Questions
Part B − Chemistry (105 marks) − 35 Questions
Part C − Physics (105 marks) − 35 Questions
(iv) Candidates will be awarded three marks each for indicated correct response of each question. One mark will be deducted
for indicated incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
an item in the Answer Sheet.
Mathematics
PART − A
1. AB is a vertical pole with B at the ground level and A at the top. A man finds that the angle of
elevation of the point A from a certain point C on the ground is 60°. He moves away from the pole
along the line BC to a point D such that CD = 7 m. From D the angle of elevation of the point A is 45°.
Then the height of the pole is
(1) 7 3 1
2 3 1
⋅
−
m (2) 7 3 ( 3 1)
2
⋅ + m
(3) 7 3 ( 3 1)
2
⋅ −m (4) 7 3 1
2 3 1
⋅
+
Sol: (2)
BD = AB = 7 + x
Also AB = x tan 60° = x 3
∴ x 3 = 7 + x
x = 7
3 − 1
AB = 7 3 ( 3 1)
2
+ .
45° 60°
A
D 7 C x B
2. It is given that the events A and B are such that P (A) = 1
4
, P A 1
B 2
=
and P B 2
A 3
=
. Then P (B) is
(1) 1
6
(2) 1
3
(3) 2
3
(4) 1
2
Sol: (2)
( )
( )
P A B 1
P B 2
∩
= ,
( )
( )
P A B 2
P A 3
∩
=
Hence
( )
( )
P A 3
P B 4
= . (But P (A) = 1/4)
⇒ P(B) 1
3
= .
FIITJEE Solutions to AIEEE – 2008
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3. A die is thrown. Let A be the event that the number obtained is greater than 3. Let B be the event that
the number obtained is less than 5. Then P (A ∪ B) is
(1) 3
5
(2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 2
5
Sol: (3)
A = {4, 5, 6} , B = {1, 2, 3, 4} .
Obviously P (A ∪ B) = 1.
4. A focus of an ellipse is at the origin. The directrix is the line x = 4 and the eccentricity is 1/2. Then the
length of the semi−major axis is
(1) 8
3
(2) 2
3
(3) 4
3
(4) 5
3
Sol: (1)
Major axis is along x-axis.
a ae 4
e
− =
a 2 1 4
2
− =
a = 8
3
.
5. A parabola has the origin as its focus and the line x = 2 as the directrix. Then the vertex of the
parabola is at
(1) (0, 2) (2) (1, 0)
(3) (0, 1) (4) (2, 0)
Sol: (2)
Vertex is (1, 0)
O (2, 0)
X =2
6. The point diametrically opposite to the point P (1, 0) on the circle x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y − 3 = 0 is
(1) (3, − 4) (2) (− 3, 4)
(3) (− 3, − 4) (4) (3, 4)
Sol: (3)
Centre (− 1, − 2)
Let (α, β) is the required point
1
2
α +
= − 1 and 0 2
2
β +
= − .
7. Let f : N → Y be a function defined as f (x) = 4x + 3, where Y = {y ∈ N : y = 4x + 3 for some x ∈ N}.
Show that f is invertible and its inverse is
(1) g (y) = 3y 4
3
+
(2) g (y) = 4 y 3
4
+
+
(3) g (y) = y 3
4
+
(4) g (y) = y 3
4
−
FIITJEE Solutions to AIEEE – 2008
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Sol: (4)
Function is increasing
x = y 3 g(y)
4
−
= .
8. The conjugate of a complex number is 1
i − 1
. Then the complex number is
(1) 1
i 1
−
−
(2) 1
i + 1
(3) 1
i 1
−
+
(4) 1
i − 1
Sol: (3)
Put − i in place of i
Hence 1
i 1
−
+
.
9. Let R be the real line. Consider the following subsets of the plane R × R.
S = {(x, y) : y = x + 1 and 0 < x < 2}, T = {(x, y) : x − y is an integer}. Which one of the following is true?
(1) neither S nor T is an equivalence relation on R
(2) both S and T are equivalence relations on R
(3) S is an equivalence relation on R but T is not
(4) T is an equivalence relation on R but S is not
Sol: (4)
T = {(x, y) : x−y ∈ I}
as 0 ∈ I T is a reflexive relation.
If x − y ∈ I ⇒ y − x ∈ I
∴ T is symmetrical also
If x − y = I1 and y − z = I2
Then x − z = (x − y) + (y − z) = I1 + I2 ∈ I
∴ T is also transitive.
Hence T is an equivalence relation.
Clearly x ≠ x + 1 ⇒ (x, x) ∉ S
∴ S is not reflexive.
10. The perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining P (1, 4) and Q (k, 3) has y−intercept − 4. Then
a possible value of k is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) − 2 (4) − 4
Sol: (4)
Slope of bisector = k − 1
Middle point = k 1, 7
2 2
+
Equation of bisector is
y − 7
2
= (k − 1)
(k 1) x
2
+
−
Put x = 0 and y = − 4.
⇒ k = ± 4.
11. The solution of the differential equation dy x y
dx x
+
= satisfying the condition y (1) = 1 is
(1) y = ln x + x (2) y = x ln x + x2
(3) y = xe(x−1) (4) y = x ln x + x
Sol: (4)
y = vx
FIITJEE Solutions to AIEEE - 2008
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dy v x dv
dx dx
= +
v + x dv 1 v
dx
= +
⇒ dv = dx
x
∴ v = log x + c
⇒ y log x c
x
= +
Since, y (1) = 1, we have
y = x log x + x
12. The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and the variance is 6.80. Then which one of the following
gives possible values of a and b?
(1) a = 0, b = 7 (2) a = 5, b = 2
(3) a = 1, b = 6 (4) a = 3, b = 4
Sol: (4)
Mean of a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6
⇒ a b 8 5 10 6
5
+ + + +
=
⇒ a + b = 7 … (1)
Given that Variance is 6.8
∴ Variance =
( )2
Xi A
n
Σ −
=
( )2 ( )2 a 6 b 6 4 1 16 6.8
5
− + − + + +
=
⇒ a2 + b2 = 25
a2 + (7 − a)2 = 25 (Using (1))
⇒ a2 − 7a + 12 = 0
∴ a = 4, 3 and b = 3, 4.
13. The vector a = αˆi + 2ˆj + βkˆ
lies in the plane of the vectors b
= ˆi + ˆj and c = ˆj + kˆ
and bisects the
angle between b
and c
. Then which one of the following gives possible values of α and β?
(1) α = 2, β = 2 (2) α = 1, β = 2
(3) α = 2, β = 1 (4) α = 1, β = 1
Sol: (4)
a = λ (bˆ + cˆ )
⇒
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆi 2ˆj kˆ i 2j k
2
+ +
α + + β = λ
λ = 2α and λ = 2 and λ = 2β
⇒ α = 1 and β = 1.
14. The non−zero verctors a, b
and c
are related by a = 8b
and c = −7b
. Then the angle between a
and c
is
(1) 0 (2) π/4
(3) π/2 (4) π
Sol: (4)
Since a = 8b
c = −7b
∴ a
and b
are like vectors and b
and c
are unlike.
⇒ a
and c
will be unlike
FIITJEE Solutions to AIEEE - 2008
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Hence, angle between a
and c
= π.
15. The line passing through the points (5, 1, a) and (3, b, 1) crosses the yz−plane at the point
0, 17 , 13
2 2
−
. Then
(1) a = 2, b = 8 (2) a = 4, b = 6
(3) a = 6, b = 4 (4) a = 8, b = 2
Sol: (3)
Equation of line passing through (5, 1, a) and (3, b, 1) is
x 5 y 1 z a
2 1 b a 1
− − −
= = =λ
− −
.
If line crosses yz−plane i.e., x = 0
x = 2λ + 5 = 0
⇒ λ = −5/2,
Since, y = λ (1 − b) + 1 = 17
2
5 (1 b) 1 17
2 2
− − + =
b = 4.
Also, z = λ (a − 1) + a = 13
2
−
5 (a 1) a 13
2 2
− − + =−
⇒ a = 6.
16. If the straight lines x 1 y 2 z 3
k 2 3
− − −
= = and x 2 y 3 z 1
3 k 2
− − −
= = intersect at a point, then the
integer k is equal to
(1) − 5 (2) 5
(3) 2 (4) − 2
Sol: (1)
x 1 y 2 z 3
k 2 3
− − −
= = and x 2 y 3 z 1
3 k 2
− − −
= =
Since lines intersect in a point
k 2 3
3 k 2
1 1 −2
= 0
∴ 2k2 + 5k − 25 = 0
k = − 5, 5/2.
Directions: Questions number 17 to 21 are Assertion−Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements : Statement − 1 (Assertion) and Statement−2 (Reason). Each of these questions also
has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.
17. Statement − 1: For every natural number n ≥ 2, 1 1 ... 1 n
1 2 n
+ + + > .
Statement −2: For every natural number n ≥ 2, n(n + 1) < n + 1.
(1) Statement −1 is false, Statement −2 is true
(2) Statement −1 is true, Statement −2 is true, Statement −2 is a correct explanation for Statement −1
(3) Statement −1 is true, Statement −2 is true; Statement −2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement −1.
(4) Statement − 1 is true, Statement − 2 is false.
Sol: (3)
FIITJEE Solutions to AIEEE - 2008
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P (n) = 1 1 ... 1
1 2 n
+ + +
P (2) = 1 1 2
1 2
+ > Let us assume that P (k) = 1 1 … 1 k
1 2 k
+ + + > is true
∴ P (k + 1) = 1 1 … 1 1 k 1
1 2 k k 1
+ + + + > +
+
has to be true.
L.H.S. >
1 k (k 1) 1 k
k 1 k 1
+ +
+ =
+ +
Since k (k + 1) > k (∀ k ≥ 0)
∴
k (k 1) 1 k 1 k 1
k 1 k 1
+ + +
> = +
+ +
Let P (n) = n(n + 1) < n + 1
Statement −1 is correct.
P (2) = 2 × 3 < 3
If P (k) = k (k + 1) < (k + 1) is true
Now P (k + 1) = (k + 1) (k + 2) < k + 2 has to be true
Since (k + 1) < k + 2
∴ (k + 1) (k + 2) < (k + 2)
Hence Statement −2 is not a correct explanation of Statement −1.
18. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix with real entries. Let I be the 2 × 2 identity matrix. Denote by tr (A), the sum of
diagonal entries of A. Assume that A2 = I.
Statement −1: If A ≠ I and A ≠ − I, then det A = − 1.
Statement −2: If A ≠ I and A ≠ − I, then tr (A) ≠ 0.
(1) Statement −1 is false, Statement −2 is true
(2) Statement −1 is true, Statement −2 is true, Statement −2 is a correct explanation for Statement −1
(3) Statement −1 is true, Statement −2 is true; Statement −2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement −1.
(4) Statement − 1 is true, Statement − 2 is false.
Sol: (4)
Let A =
a b
c d
so that A2 =
2
2
a bc ab bd 1 0
ac dc bc d 0 1
+ +
=
+ +
⇒ a2 + bc = 1 = bc + d2 and (a + d)c = 0 = (a + d)b.
Since A ≠ I, A ≠ 1, a = – d and hence detA =
1 bc b
c 1bc
−
− −
= – 1 + bc – bc = – 1
Statement 1 is true.
But tr. A = 0 and hence statement 2 is false.
19. Statement −1: ( ) ( )
n
n n1
r
r 0
r 1 C n 2 2−
=
Σ + = + .
Statement −2: ( ) ( ) ( )
n
n r n n 1
r
r 0
r 1 Cx 1 x nx 1 x −
=
Σ + = + + + .
(1) Statement −1 is false, Statement −2 is true
(2) Statement −1 is true, Statement −2 is true, Statement −2 is a correct explanation for Statement −1
(3) Statement −1 is true, Statement −2 is true; Statement −2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement −1.
(4) Statement − 1 is true, Statement − 2 is false.
FIITJEE Solutions to AIEEE - 2008
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Sol: (2)
( )
n
n
r
r 0
r 1 C
=
Σ + =
n
n n
r r
r 0
r C C
=
Σ +
=
n n
n 1 n
r 1 r
r 0 r 0
r n C C
r
−
−
= =
Σ +Σ = n2n−1 + 2n
= 2n−1 (n + 2)
Statement −1 is true
( )n r n r n r
Σ r + 1 Cr x =Σr Cr x +Σ Cr x
=
n n
n 1 r n r
r 1 r
r 0 r 0
n − C x C x
−
= =
Σ +Σ = nx (1 + x)n−1 + (1 + x)n
Substituting x = 1
( )n n1 n
r 1 Cr n 2 2 Σ + = − +
Hence Statement −2 is also true and is a correct explanation of Statement −1.
20. Let p be the statement “x is an irrational number”, q be the statement “y is a transcendental number”,
and r be the statement “x is a rational number iff y is a transcendental number”.
Statement –1: r is equivalent to either q or p
Statement –2: r is equivalent to ∼ (p ↔ ∼ q).
(1) Statement −1 is false, Statement −2 is true
(2) Statement −1 is true, Statement −2 is true, Statement −2 is a correct explanation for Statement −1
(3) Statement −1 is true, Statement −2 is true; Statement −2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement −1.
(4) Statement − 1 is true, Statement − 2 is false.
Sol: (4)
Given statement r = ∼ p ↔ q
Statement −1 : r1 = (p ∧ ∼ q) ∨ (∼ p ∧ q)
Statement −2 : r2 = ∼ (p ↔ ∼ q) = (p ∧ q) ∨ (∼ q ∧ ∼ p)
From the truth table of r, r1 and r2,
r = r1.
Hence Statement − 1 is true and Statement −2 is false.
21. In a shop there are five types of ice-creams available. A child buys six ice-creams.
Statement -1: The number of different ways the child can buy the six ice-creams is 10C5.
Statement -2: The number of different ways the child can buy the six ice-creams is equal to the
number of different ways of arranging 6 A’s and 4 B’s in a row.
(1) Statement −1 is false, Statement −2 is true
(2) Statement −1 is true, Statement −2 is true, Statement −2 is a correct explanation for Statement −1
(3) Statement −1 is true, Statement −2 is true; Statement −2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement −1.
(4) Statement − 1 is true, Statement − 2 is false.
Sol: (1)
x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 6
5 + 6 – 1C5 – 1 = 10C4.
22. Let f(x) =
(x 1)sin 1 , if x 1
x 1
0, if x 1
− ≠
−
=
. Then which one of the following is true?
(1) f is neither differentiable at x = 0 nor at x = 1 (2) f is differentiable at x = 0 and at x = 1
(3) f is differentiable at x = 0 but not at x = 1 (4) f is differentiable at x = 1 but not at x = 0
Sol: (1)
f′(1) =
( ) ( )
h 0
lim f 1 h f 1
→ h
+ −
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⇒ f′(1) =
( )
h 0 h 0
1 h 1 sin 1 0 lim 1 h 1 lim h sin 1
→ h → h h
+ − − + − =
⇒ f′(1) =
h 0
lim sin 1
→ h
∴ f is not differentiable at x = 1.
Similarly, f′(0) =
( ) ( )
h 0
lim f h f 0
→ h
−
⇒ f′(0) =
( ) ( )
h 0
h 1 sin 1 sin 1
lim h 1
→ h
− −
−
⇒ f is also not differentiable at x = 0.
23. The first two terms of a geometric progression add up to 12. The sum of the third and the fourth terms
is 48. If the terms of the geometric progression are alternately positive and negative, then the first
term is
(1) –4 (2) –12
(3) 12 (4) 4
Sol: (2)
Let a, ar, ar2, …
a + ar = 12 …(1)
ar2 + ar3= 48 …(2)
dividing (2) by (1), we have
( )
( )
ar2 1 r
a r 1
+
+
= 4
⇒ r2 = 4 if r ≠ – 1
∴ r = – 2
also, a = – 12 (using (1)).
24. Suppose the cube x3 – px + q has three distinct real roots where p > 0 and q > 0. Then which one of
the following holds?
(1) The cubic has minima at p
3
and maxima at – p
3
(2) The cubic has minima at – p
3
and maxima at p
3
(3) The cubic has minima at both p
3
and – p
3
(4) The cubic has maxima at both p
3
and – p
3
Sol: (1)
Let f(x) = x3 – px + q
Now for maxima/minima
f′(x) = 0
⇒ 3×2 – p = 0
⇒ x2 = p
3
∴ x = ± p
3
.
–√(p/3)
√(p/3)
25. How many real solutions does the equation x7 + 14×5 + 16×3 + 30x – 560 = 0 have?
(1) 7 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 5
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Sol: (2)
x7 + 14×5 + 16×3 + 30x – 560 = 0
Let f(x) = x7 + 14×5 + 16×3 + 30x
⇒ f′(x) = 7×6 + 70×4 + 48×2 + 30 > 0 ∀ x.
∴ f (x) is an increasing function ∀ x.
26. The statement p → (q → p) is equivalent to
(1) p → (p → q) (2) p → (p ∨ q)
(3) p → (p ∧ q) (4) p → (p ↔ q)
Sol: (2)
p → (q → p) = ~ p ∨ (q → p)
= ~ p ∨ (~ q ∨ p) since p ∨ ~ p is always true
= ~ p ∨ p ∨ q = p → (p ∨ q).
27. The value of cot cosec 1 5 tan 1 2
3 3
− + −
is
(1) 6
17
(2) 3
17
(3) 4
17
(4) 5
17
Sol: (1)
Let E = cot cosec 1 5 tan 1 2
3 3
− + −
⇒ E = cot tan 1 3 tan 1 2
4 3
− + −
⇒ E = 1
3 2
cot tan 4 3
1 3 2
4 3
−
+
− ⋅
⇒ E = cot tan 1 17 6
6 17
− =
.
28. The differential equation of the family of circles with fixed radius 5 units and centre on the line y = 2 is
(1) (x – 2)y′2 = 25 – (y – 2)2 (2) (y – 2)y′2 = 25 – (y – 2)2
(3) (y – 2)2y′2 = 25 – (y – 2)2 (4) (x – 2)2y′2 = 25 – (y – 2)2
Sol: (3)
(x – h)2 + (y – 2)2 = 25 …(1)
⇒ 2(x – h) + 2(y – 2) dy
dx
= 0
⇒ (x – h) = – (y – 2) dy
dx
substituting in (1), we have
( ) ( )
2
y 2 2 dy y 2 2 25
dx
− + − =
(y – 2)2y′2 = 25 – (y – 2)2.
29. Let I =
1
0
sin xdx
x ∫ and J =
1
0
cos xdx
x ∫ . Then which one of the following is true?
(1) I > 2
3
and J > 2 (2) I < 2
3
and J < 2
(3) I < 2
3
and J > 2 (4) I > 2
3
and J < 2
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Sol: (2)
I =
1
0
sinxdx
x ∫ <
1 1 1
3 / 2
0 0 0
x dx xdx 2 x 2
x 3 3
∫ = ∫ = =
⇒ I < 2
3
J =
1
0
cos xdx
x ∫ <
1
1
0
0
1 dx 2 x 2
x
∫ = =
∴ J ≤ 2.
30. The area of the plane region bounded by the curves x + 2y2 = 0 and x + 3y2 = 1 is equal to
(1) 5
3
(2) 1
3
(3) 2
3
(4) 4
3
Sol: (4)
Solving the equations we get the points of
intersection (–2, 1) and (–2, –1)
The bounded region is shown as shaded
region.
The required area = 2 ( ) ( )
1
2 2
0
∫ 1− 3y − −2y
= ( )
1 3 1
2
0 0
2 1 y dy 2 y y 2 2 4
3 3 3
− = − = × =
∫ .
(–2, 1)
x + 2y (–2, –1) 2 = 0
x + 3y2 = 1
(1, 0) x
y
31. The value of 2 sinxdx
sin x
4
π −
∫ is
(1) x + log cos x c
4
π − +
(2) x – log sin x c
4
π − +
(3) x + log sin x c
4
π − +
(4) x – log cos x c
4
π − +
Sol: (3)
sinxdx sin x dx 2 2 4 4
sin x sin x
4 4
π π − +
=
π π − −
∫ ∫
= 2 cos cot x sin dx
4 4 4
π π π + − ∫
= dx cot x dx
4
π + −
∫ ∫
= x + ln sin x c
4
π − +
.
32. How many different words can be formed by jumbling the letters in the word MISSISSIPPI in which no
two S are adjacent?
(1) 8 . 6C4 . 7C4 (2) 6 . 7 . 8C4
(3) 6 . 8 . 7C4 (4) 7 . 6C4 . 8C4
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Sol: (4)
Other than S, seven letters M, I, I, I, P, P, I can be arranged in 7!
2! 4!
= 7 . 5 . 3.
Now four S can be placed in 8 spaces in 8C4 ways.
Desired number of ways = 7 . 5 . 3 . 8C4 = 7 . 6C4 . 8C4.
33. Let a, b, c be any real numbers. Suppose that there are real numbers x, y, z not all zero such that x =
cy + bz, y = az + cx and z = bx + ay. Then a2 + b2 + c2 + 2abc is equal to
(1) 2 (2) – 1
(3) 0 (4) 1
Sol: (4)
The system of equations x – cy – bz = 0, cx – y + az = 0 and bx + ay – z = 0 have non-trivial solution if
1 c b
c 1 a
b a 1
− −
−
−
= 0 ⇒ 1(1 – a2) + c(–c – ab) – b(ca + b) = 0
⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 + 2abc = 1.
34. Let A be a square matrix all of whose entries are integers. Then which one of the following is true?
(1) If detA = ± 1, then A–1 exists but all its entries are not necessarily integers
(2) If detA ≠ ± 1, then A–1 exists and all its entries are non-integers
(3) If detA = ± 1, then A–1 exists and all its entries are integers
(4) If detA = ± 1, then A–1 need not exist
Sol: (3)
Each entry of A is integer, so the cofactor of every entry is an integer and hence each entry in the
adjoint of matrix A is integer.
Now detA = ± 1 and A–1 = 1
det(A)
(adj A)
⇒ all entries in A–1 are integers.
35. The quadratic equations x2 – 6x + a = 0 and x2 – cx + 6 = 0 have one root in common. The other roots
of the first and second equations are integers in the ratio 4 : 3. Then the common root is
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 2
Sol: (4)
Let α and 4β be roots of x2 – 6x + a = 0 and α, 3β be the roots of x2 – cx + 6 = 0, then
α + 4β = 6 and 4αβ = a
α + 3β = c and 3αβ = 6.
We get αβ = 2 ⇒ a = 8
So the first equation is x2 – 6x + 8 = 0 ⇒ x = 2, 4
If α = 2 and 4β = 4 then 3β = 3
If α = 4 and 4β = 2, then 3β = 3/2 (non-integer)
∴ common root is x = 2.
Chemistry
PART − B
36. The organic chloro compound, which shows complete stereochemical inversion during a SN2 reaction,
is
(1) (C2H5)2CHCl (2) (CH3)3CCl
(3) (CH3)2CHCl (4) CH3Cl
Sol. (4)
For SN2 reaction, the C atom is least hindered towards the attack of nucleophile in the case of
(CH3Cl).
Hence, (4) is the correct answer.
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37. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so
obtained is diazotised and then heated with cuprous bromide. The reaction mixture so formed
contains
(1) mixture of o− and p−bromotoluenes (2) mixture of o− and p−dibromobenzenes
(3) mixture of o− and p−bromoanilines (4) mixture of o− and m−bromotoluenes
Sol. (1)
CH3
NO2
CH3
NO2
+
Sn/HCl
Sn/HCl
CH3
NH2
CH3
NH2
NaNO2/HCl
NaNO2/HCl
CH3
N2Cl
CuBr
CH3
Br
CH3
N2 Cl
CuBr
CH3
Br
CH3
Nitration→
38. The coordination number and the oxidation state of the element ‘E’ in the complex [E(en)2(C2O4)]NO2
(where (en) is ethylene diamine) are, respectively,
(1) 6 and 2 (2) 4 and 2
(3) 4 and 3 (4) 6 and 3
Sol. (4)
E
en
en
ox
NO2
Coordination no. = 6 and Oxidation no. = 3
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39. Identify the wrong statements in the following:
(1) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion
(2) Greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming
(3) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the sun to reach the earth
(4) Acid rains is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
Sol. (3)
Ozone layer does not allow ultraviolet radiation from sun to reach earth.
40. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated nitric acid,
gives
(1) 2,4,6-trinitrobenzene (2) o-nitrophenol
(3) p-nitrophenol (4) nitrobenzene
Sol. (2)
OH
Conc.H2SO4→
OH
SO3H
Conc.HNO3→
OH
NO2
41. In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound ‘B’
O3 H2O
3 3 Zn CH CH = CHCH →A→B.
The compound B is
(1) CH3CH2CHO (2) CH3COCH3
(3) CH3CH2COCH3 (4) CH3CHO
Sol. (4)
H3C CH CH CH3 H3C CH
O O
CH
O
CH3
(A)
H2O/Zn
C
H
H3C
O
(B)
42. Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than those by the lanthanoids, the
main reason being
(1) 4f orbitals more diffused than the 5f orbitals
(2) lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(3) more energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(4) more reactive nature of the actinoids than the lanthanoids
Sol. (2)
Being lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than 4f and 5d orbitals.
43. In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (at. no. 27), will the magnitude of o Δ be the
highest?
(1) [Co(CN)6]3− (2) [Co(C2O4)3]3−
(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Co(NH3)6]3+
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Sol. (1)
CNΘ is stronger ligand hence o Δ is highest.
44. At 80oC, the vapour pressure of pure liquid ‘A’ is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid ‘B’ is 1000 mm
Hg. If a mixture solution of ‘A’ and ‘B’ boils at 80oC and 1 atm pressure, the amount of ‘A’ in the
mixture is (1 atm = 760 mm Hg)
(1) 52 mol percent (2) 34 mol percent
(3) 48 mol percent (4) 50 mol percent
Sol. (4)
o o
PT = PAXA + PB XB
760 = o ( )
A B A 520X +P 1− X
A ⇒ X = 0.5
Thus, mole% of A = 50%
45. For a reaction 1 A 2B,
2
→ rate of disappearance of ‘A’ is related to the rate of appearance of ‘B’ by the
expression
(1)
d[A] 1 d[B]
dt 2 dt
− = (2)
d[A] 1 d[B]
dt 4 dt
− =
(3)
d[A] d[B]
dt dt
− = (4)
d[A] d[B]
4
dt dt
− =
Sol. (2)
1 A 2B
2
→
2d[A] d[B]
dt 2dt
−
= +
d[A] 1 d[B]
dt 4 dt
−
=
46. The equilibrium constants P1 K and P2 K for the reactions X2Y and ZP +Q, respectively are in
the ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal then the ratio of total pressure at
these equilibria is
(1) 1 : 36 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 9
Sol. (1)
( )
X 2Y
1 0
1− x 2x
( )
1 ( )
2 1
1
p
2x P
k
1 x 1 x
= − +
( )
Z PQ
1 0 0
1 x x x
+
−
2 ( )
2 1
2
p
x P k
1 x 1 x
= − +
1 1
2 2
4 P 1 P 1
P 9 P 36
×
= ⇒ =
47. Oxidising power of chlorine in aqueous solution can be determined by the parameters indicated
below:
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( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) diss eg hyd
1 H 2 H H
2
1Cl g Cl g Cl g Cl aq .
2
Δ Δ − Δ − → → →
The energy involved in the conversion of ( ) 2
1Cl g
2
to Cl−(g)
(using the data,
2
1 1 1
diss Cl eg Cl hyd Cl Δ H = 240 kJmol− , Δ H = −349 kJmol− , Δ H = −381 kJmol− )
will be
(1) +152 kJmol−1 (2) −610 kJmol−1
(3) −850 kJmol−1 (4) +120 kJmol−1
Sol. (2)
For the process ( ) 2 aq
1 Cl g Cl
2
→ −
diss 2 eg hyd
H 1 H of Cl Cl Cl
2
Δ = Δ + Δ + Δ −
240 349 381
2
= + − −
= − 610 kJ mol−1
48. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not
subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly?
(1) Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2
(2) CO2 is thermodynamically more stable than CS2
(3) Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides
(4) CO2 is more volatile than CS2
Sol. (1)
49. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with
(1) (CH2OH)2 (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) HCHO
Sol. (4)
OH
+ HCHO→
OH
CH2OH
CH2OH
Polymerize→ CH2
CH2
O
n
50. For the following three reactions a, b and c, equilibrium constants are given:
a. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) 2 2 2 1 CO g +H O g CO g +H g ; K
b. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) 4 2 2 2 CH g +H O g CO g + 3H g ; K
c. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) 4 2 2 2 3 CH g + 2H O g CO g + 4H g ; K
Which of the following relations is correct?
(1) 1 2 3 K K = K (2) K2K3 = K1
(3) K3 = K1K2 (4) 3 2
3 2 1 K .K = K
Sol. (3)
Equation (c) = equation (a) + equation (b)
Thus K3 = K1.K2
51. The absolute configuration of
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HO2C
HO OH
CO2H
H H
is
(1) S, S (2) R, R
(3) R, S (4) S, R
Sol. (2)
HO2C
HO OH
CO2H
H H
1 2
Both C1 and C2 have R – configuration.
52. The electrophile, E⊕ attacks the benzene ring to generate the intermediate σ-complex. Of the
following, which σ-complex is of lowest energy?
(1)
NO2
H E
(2)
H
E
(3)
H
E
NO2
(4)
NO2
H
E
Sol. (2)
NO2 is electron withdrawing which will destabilize σ - complex.
53. α-D-(+)-glucose and β-D-(+)-glucose are
(1) conformers (2) epimers
(3) anomers (4) enantiomers
Sol. (3)
α - D (+) glucose and β - D (+) glucose are anomers.
54. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK−1mol−1, respectively. For the reaction,
2 2 3
1 X 3 Y XY , H 30 kJ,
2 2
+ → Δ =− to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be
(1) 1250 K (2) 500 K
(3) 750 K (4) 1000 K
Sol. (3)
2 2 3
1 X 3 Y XY
2 2
+ →
1
reaction
S 50 3 40 1 60 40 Jmol
2 2
Δ = − × + × = − −
ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
at equilibrium ΔG = 0
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ΔH = TΔS
30 × 103 = T × 40
⇒ T = 750 K
55. Four species are listed below
i. 3 HCO− ii. H3O+
iii. 4 HSO− iv. HSO3F
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their acid strength?
(1) iv < ii < iii < I (2) ii < iii < i < iv
(3) i < iii < ii < iv (4) iii < i < iv < ii
Sol. (3)
(iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i)
56. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species?
(1) 2
2 2 C − , O− , CO, NO (2) 2
2 2 NO+ , C − , CN− , N
(3) 2 2
2 2 2 CN− , N , O − , C − (4) 2 2 N , O− , NO+ , CO
Sol. (2)
2
2 2 NO+ , C − , CN− and N
all have fourteen electrons.
57. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
(1) CN− and NO+ (2) CN− and CN+
(3) 2 O− and CN− (4) NO+ and CN+
Sol. (1)
Both are isoelectronic and have same bond order.
58. The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 × 106 Jmol−1. The energy required to excite the
electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
(1) 8.51 × 105 Jmol−1 (2) 6.56 × 105 Jmol−1
(3) 7.56 × 105 Jmol−1 (4) 9.84 × 105 Jmol−1
Sol. (4)
6 6
2 1 2
E E E 1.312 10 1.312 10
2 1
× ×
Δ = − = − − −
= 9.84 ×105 J mol−1
59. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(1) Boric acid is a protonic acid
(2) Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six
(3) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase
(4) B2H6.2NH3 is known as ‘inorganic benzene’
Sol. (3)
Al
Cl Cl
Cl Cl
Al
Cl
Cl
Be
Cl
Cl Cl
Be
Cl
Cl
Be
Cl
60. Given Cr3 /Cr Fe2 /Fe E 0.72 V, E 0.42 V. + +
° = − ° = − The potential for the cell
CrCr3+ (0.1 M)Fe2+ (0.01 M)Fe is
(1) 0.26 V (2) 0.399 V
(3) −0.339 V (4) −0.26 V
Sol. (1)
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3 2
0 0
Cr/Cr Fe /Fe As E 0.72 V and E 0.42 V + + = − = −
2Cr + 3Fe2+ →3Fe + 2Cr3+
( )
( )
3 2
0
cell cell 2 3
0.0591 Cr E E log
6 Fe
+
+
= −
( ) ( )
( )
2
3
0.0591 0.1 0.42 0.72 log
6 0.01
= − + − ( )
( )
2
3
0.0591 0.1 0.30 log
6 0.01
= −
2
6
0.30 0.0591log10
6 10
−
− = − 0.30 0.0591log104
6
= −
Ecell = 0.2606 V
61. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4 solution in
the presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of
HCl, because HCl
(1) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine
(2) furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid
(3) reduces permanganate to Mn2+
(4) oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water
Sol. (3)
HCl being stronger reducing agent reduces MnO4
− to Mn2+ and result of the titration becomes
unsatisfactory.
62. The vapour pressure of water at 20oC is 17.5 mm Hg. If 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g
of water at 20oC, the vapour pressure of the resulting solution will be
(1) 17.675 mm Hg (2) 15.750 mm Hg
(3) 16.500 mm Hg (4) 17.325 mm Hg
Sol. (4)
0
s
solute
s
P P
X
P
−
=
s
s
17.5 P 0.1
P 10
−
=
s
s
17.5 P
0.01
P
−
=
⇒ Ps = 17.325 mm Hg
63. Among the following substituted silanes the one which will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on
hydrolysis is
(1) R4Si (2) RSiCl3
(3) R2SiCl2 (4) R3SiCl
Sol. (2)
R Si
Cl
Cl
Cl H2O→R Si
OH
OH
OH Condensation
polymerization → R Si O Si R
O
O
Si
O
Si
Si
O
Si
n
64. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO + H2), which of the following
is the correct statement?
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(1) CO and H2 are fractionally separated using differences in their densities
(2) CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu2Cl2 solution
(3) H2 is removed through occlusion with Pd
(4) CO is oxidised to CO2 with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO2 in
alkali
Sol. (4)
H2O
2 2 2 CO +H →CO + 2H
KOH
K2CO3
65. In a compound atoms of element Y from ccp lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral
voids. The formula of the compound will be
(1) X4Y3 (2) X2Y3
(3) X2Y (4) X3Y4
Sol. (1)
No. of atoms of Y = 4
No. of atoms of X = 2 8
3
×
Formula of compound will be X4Y3
66. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.50, 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005, respectively. The
correct order of their protective powers is
(1) D < A < C < B (2) C < B < D < A
(3) A < C < B < D (4) B < D < A < C
Sol. (3)
Higher the gold number lesser will be the protective power of colloid.
67. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is
(1) CH3CH2CH2C≡CCH2CH2CH3 (2) CH3CH2C≡CH
(3) CH3CH=CHCH3 (4) CH3CH2C≡CCH2CH3
Sol. (2)
Na /Liq.NH3
3 2 3 2 CH CH C CH CH CH C CNa
Θ
⊕
Δ − ≡ → ≡
It is a terminal alkyne, having acidic hydrogen.
Note: Solve it as a case of terminal alkynes, otherwise all alkynes react with Na in liq. NH3.
68. The treatment of CH3MgX with CH3C≡C−H produces
(1) CH3−CH=CH2 (2) CH3C≡C−CH3
(3) CH3 C
H
C
H
CH3 (4) CH4
Sol. (4)
3 3 4 CH −MgX + CH − C ≡ C −H→CH
69. The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the IUPAC
system of nomenclature is
(1) −COOH, −SO3H, −CONH2, −CHO (2) −SO3H, −COOH, −CONH2, −CHO
(3) −CHO, −COOH, −SO3H, −CONH2 (4) −CONH2, −CHO, −SO3H, −COOH
Sol. (2)
3 2 −SO H, −COOH, − CONH , −CHO
70. The pKa of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be
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(1) 9.58 (2) 4.79
(3) 7.01 (4) 9.22
Sol. (3)
It is a salt of weak acid and weak base
w a
b
K K
H
K
+ ×
=
pH = 7.01
Physics
PART − C
Directions: Questions No. 71, 72 and 73 are based on the following paragraph.
Wave property of electrons implies that they will show diffraction effects. Davisson and Germer demonstrated
this by diffracting electrons from crystals. The law governing the diffraction from a crystal is obtained by
requiring that electron waves reflected from the planes of atoms in a crystal interfere constructively (see in
figure).
Incoming
Electrons
Outgoing
Electrons
d
i
Crystal plane
71. Electrons accelerated by potential V are diffracted from a crystal. If d = 1Å and i = 30°, V should be
about (h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js, me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C)
(1) 2000 V (2) 50 V
(3) 500 V (4) 1000 V
Sol. (2)
2d cos i = nλ
2d cos i = h
2meV
v = 50 volt
i
72. If a strong diffraction peak is observed when electrons are incident at an angle ‘i’ from the normal to
the crystal planes with distance ‘d’ between them (see figure), de Broglie wavelength λdB of electrons
can be calculated by the relationship (n is an integer)
(1) d sin i = nλdB (2) 2d cos i = nλdB
(3) 2d sin i = nλdB (4) d cos i = nλdB
Sol. (4)
2d cos i = nλdB
73. In an experiment, electrons are made to pass through a narrow slit of width ‘d’ comparable to their de
Broglie wavelength. They are detected on a screen at a distance ‘D’ from the slit (see figure).
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D
d y = 0
Which of the following graph can be expected to represent the number of electrons ‘N’ detected as a
function of the detector position ‘y’(y = 0 corresponds to the middle of the slit)?
(1) y
d N
(2) y
d N
(3) y
d N
(4) y
d N
Sol. (4)
Diffraction pattern will be wider than the slit.
74. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive than the earth and its radius is 10 times
smaller. Given that the escape velocity from the earth is 11 kms−1, the escape velocity from the
surface of the planet would be
(1) 1.1 kms−1 (2) 11 kms−1
(3) 110 kms−1 (4) 0.11 kms−1
Sol. (3)
vesc = 2GM 2G 10M
R R10
×
= = 10 × 11 = 110 km/s
75. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of density ρ1. It is falling through a liquid of
density ρ2(ρ2 <ρ1). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the ball that is proportional to the
square of its speed v, i.e., Fviscous = −kv2(k>0). The terminal speed of the ball is
(1) 1 2 Vg( )
k
ρ − ρ
(2) 1 Vg
k
ρ
(3) 1 Vg
k
ρ
(4) 1 2 Vg( )
k
ρ − ρ
Sol. (1)
ρ1Vg − ρ2Vg = 2
T kv
⇒ vT =
( ) 1 2 Vg
k
ρ − ρ
76. Shown in the figure below is a meter-bridge set up with null deflection in the galvanometer.
G
55 Ω R
20 cm
The value of the unknown resistor R is
(1) 13.75 Ω (2) 220 Ω
(3) 110 Ω (4) 55 Ω
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Sol. (2)
55 R R 55 8 220
20 80 2
×
= ⇒ = = Ω
77. A thin rod of length ‘L’ is lying along the x-axis with its ends at x = 0 and x = L. Its linear density
(mass/length) varies with x as
n k x
L
, where n can be zero or any positive number. If the position xCM
of the centre of mass of the rod is plotted against ‘n’, which of the following graphs best approximates
the dependence of xCM on n?
(1)
L
L/2
O n
xCM
(2)
L/2
O n
xCM
(3)
L
L/2
O n
xCM
(4)
L
L/2
O n
xCM
Sol. (1)
xcm =
λ = =
∫ ∫ ∫
∫ ∫ ∫
n
n
k x .xdx dmx dx.x L
dm dm x k dx
L
( )
( )
( )
+
+
+ + = = +
+
n 2 L
n L
n 1
0
n
0
kx
n 2 L x n 1
kx n 2
n 1L
xcm = L , 2L , 3L , 4L , 5L , . . .
2 3 4 5 6
78. While measuring the speed of sound by performing a resonance column experiment, a student gets
the first resonance condition at a column length of 18 cm during winter. Repeating the same
experiment during summer, she measures the column length to be x cm for the second resonance.
Then
(1) 18 > x (2) x >54
(3) 54 > x > 36 (4) 36 > x > 18
Sol. (2)
n = 1 RT
4x M
γ
xn = 1 RT
4 M
γ
x ∝ T
79. The dimension of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (Coulomb) is given as
(1) MLT−1C−1 (2) MT2C−2
(3) MT−1C−1 (4) MT−2C−1
Sol. (3)
F = qvB
B = F/qv = MC−1T−1
80. Consider a uniform square plate of side ‘a’ and mass ‘m’. The moment of inertia of this plate about an
axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its corners is
(1) 5
6
ma2 (2) 1
12
ma2
(3) 7
12
ma2 (4) 2
3
ma2
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Sol. (4)
I = Icm + m
2 2 2
a 2 ma ma 2ma2
2 6 2 3
= + =
81. A body of mass m = 3.513 kg is moving along the x-axis with a speed of 5.00 ms−1. The magnitude of
its momentum is recorded as
(1) 17.6 kg ms−1 (2) 17.565 kg ms−1
(3) 17.56 kg ms−1 (4) 17.57 kg ms−1
Sol. (1)
P = mv = 3.513 × 5.00 ≈ 17.6
82. An athlete in the olympic games covers a distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be
estimated to be in the range
(1) 200 J − 500 J (2) 2 × 105 J − 3 × 105 J
(3) 20,000 J − 50,000 J (4) 2,000 J − 5,000 J
Sol. (4)
Approximate mass = 60 kg
Approximate velocity = 10 m/s
Approximate KE = 1 60 100 3000 J
2
× × =
KE range ⇒ 2000 to 5000 joule
83. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation
between its plates is ‘d’. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of the
dielectrics has dielectric constant k1 = 3 and thickness d
3
while the other one has dielectric constant
k2 = 6 and thickness 2d
3
. Capacitance of the capacitor is now
(1) 1.8 pF (2) 45 pF
(3) 40.5 pF (4) 20.25 pF
Sol. (3)
C′ = 0 0
1 2
A A
d d d 2d
3 6 9 18
ε ε
=
+ +
= 0 18A
4d
ε
C′ = 40.5 PF
3 6
C = 9 PF
84. The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain temperature is 460 ms−1. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be (assumed both gases to be ideal)
(1) 460 ms−1 (2) 500 ms−1
(3) 650 ms−1 (4) 330 ms−1
Sol. No option is correct
v = RT
M
γ
1 1 2
2 2 1
7 4 V M 5
V M 5 32
3
γ ×
= =
γ ×
2
460 21
V 25 8
=
×
⇒ v2 = 460 5 2 2
21
× ×
= 1420
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85. This question contains Statement -1 and Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement – I:
Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo fusion.
and
Statement – II
For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon increases with increasing Z while for light nuclei it
decrease with increasing Z.
(1) Statement – 1is false, Statement – 2 is true.
(2) Statement – 1is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement -2 is correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement – 1is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(4) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is False.
Sol. (4)
86. This question contains Statement -1 and Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement – I:
For a mass M kept at the centre of a cube of side ‘a’, the flux of gravitational field passing through its
sides is 4π GM.
and
Statement – II
If the direction of a field due to a point source is radial and its dependence on the distance ‘r’ for the
source is given as 1/r2, its flux through a closed surface depends only on the strength of the source
enclosed by the surface and not on the size or shape of the surface
(1) Statement – 1is false, Statement – 2 is true.
(2) Statement – 1is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement -2 is correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement – 1is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(4) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is False.
Sol. (2)
g = GM/r2
87. A jar filled with two non mixing liquids 1 and 2 having densities ρ1 and ρ2
respectively. A solid ball, made of a material of density ρ3, is dropped in the
jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position shown in the figure.
Which of the following is true for ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3?
(1) ρ3 < ρ1 < ρ2 (2) ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2
(3) ρ1 < ρ2 < ρ3 (4) ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2
Sol. (4)
As liquid 1 floats above liquid 2,
ρ1 < ρ2
Liquid 1
Liquid 2
ρ3
ρ1
ρ2
The ball is unable to sink into liquid 2,
ρ3 < ρ2
The ball is unable to rise over liquid 1,
ρ1 < ρ3
Thus, ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2
88. A working transistor with its three legs marked P, Q and R is tested using a multimeter. No
conduction is found between P and Q. By connecting the common (negative) terminal of the
multimeter to R and the other (positive) terminal to P or Q, some resistance is seen on the
multimeter. Which of the following is true for the transistor?
(1) It is an npn transistor with R as base (2) It is a pnp transistor with R as collector
(3) It is a pnp transistor with R as emitter (4) It is an npn transistor with R as collector
Sol. (2)
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Directions: Question No. 89 and 90 are based on the following paragraph.
Consider a block of conducting material of resistivity ‘ρ’ shown in the figure. Current ‘I’ enters at ‘A’ and
leaves from ‘D’. We apply superposition principle to find voltage ‘ΔV’ developed between ‘B’ and ‘C’. The
calculation is done in the following steps:
(i) Take current ‘I’ entering from ‘A’ and assume it to spread over a hemispherical surface in the block.
(ii) Calculate field E(r) at distance ‘r’ from A by using Ohm’s law E = ρj, where j is the current per unit
area at ‘r’.
(iii) From the ‘r’ dependence of E(r), obtain the potential V(r) at r.
(iv) Repeat (i), (ii) and (iii) for current ‘I’ leaving ‘D’ and superpose results for ‘A’ and ‘D’.
A B C D
a b a
Δv
I I
89. ΔV measured between B and C is
(1) I I
a (a b)
ρ ρ
−
π π +
(2) I I
a (a b)
ρ ρ
−
+
(3) I I
2 a 2 (a b)
ρ ρ
−
π π +
(4) I
2 (a b)
ρ
π −
Sol. (3)
Choosing A as origin,
E = ρj = ρ 2
I
2πr
VC − VB = −
(a b)
2
a
I 1dr
2 r
ρ +
π ∫ = ( )
I 1 1
2 a b a
ρ − π +
VB − VC = ( )
I 1 1
2 a a b
ρ − π +
90. For current entering at A, the electric field at a distance ‘r’ from A is
(1) 2
I
8 r
ρ
π
(2) 2
I
r
ρ
(3) 2
I
2 r
ρ
π
(4) 2
I
4 r
ρ
π
Sol. (3)
91. A student measures the focal length of convex lens by putting an object pin at a distance ‘u’ from the
lens and measuring the distance ‘v’ of the image pin. The graph between ‘u’ and ‘v’ plotted by the
student should look like
O u (cm)
v (cm)
(1)
O u (cm)
v (cm)
(2)
O u (cm)
v (cm)
(3)
O u (cm)
v (cm)
(4)
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Sol. (3)
1 1 1 constant
v u f
− = =
92. A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 m/s on a smooth surface. It strikes another
mass of 1.00 kg and then they move together as a single body. The energy loss during the collision is
(1) 0.16 J (2) 1.00 J
(3) 0.67 J (4) 0.34 J
Sol. (3)
m1u1 + m2u2 = (m1 + m2)v
v = 2/3 m/s
Energy loss = ( ) ( ) ( )
2
1 0.5 2 2 1 1.5 2
2 2 3
× − ×
= 0.67 J
93. A capillary tube (A) is dropped in water. Another identical tube (B) is dipped in a soap water solution.
Which of the following shows the relative nature of the liquid columns in the two tubes?
(1)
A
B
(2)
A
B
(3)
A
B
(4)
A
B
Sol. (3)
Capillary rise h = 2T cos
gr
θ
ρ
. As soap solution has lower T, h will be low.
94. Suppose an electron is attracted towards the origin by a force k/r where ‘k’ is a constant and ‘r’ is the
distance of the electron from the origin. By applying Bohr model to this system, the radius of the nth
orbital of the electron is found to be ‘rn’ and the kinetic energy of the electron to be Tn. Then which of
the following is true?
(1) Tn ∝ 1/n2, rn ∝ n2 (2) Tn independent of n, rn ∝ n
(3) Tn ∝ 1/n, rn ∝ n (4) Tn ∝ 1/n, rn ∝ n2
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Sol. (2)
k mv2
r r
=
mv2 = k (independent or r)
n h mvr
2
= π
⇒ r ∝ n and T = 1mv2
2
is independent of n.
95. A wave travelling along the x-axis is described by the equation y(x, t) = 0.005 cos (αx −βt). If the
wavelength and the time period of the wave are 0.08 m and 2.0 s, respectively, then α and β in
appropriate units are
(1) α = 25.00 π, β = π (2) α = 0.08, 2.0
π π
(3) α = 0.04,β = 1.0
π π
(4) α = 12.50 π, β =
2.0
π
Sol. (1)
y = 0.005 cos (αx − βt)
comparing the equation with the standard form,
y = A cos x t 2
T
− π λ
2π/λ = α and 2π/T = β
α = 2π/0.08 = 25.00 π
β = π
96. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated wire over a pipe of cross sectional area A =
10 cm2 and length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their
mutual inductance is (μ0 = 4π × 10-7 Tm A-1)
(1) 2.4 π × 10-5 H (2) 4.8 π × 10-4 H
(3) 4.8 π × 10-5 H (4) 2.4 π × 10-4 H
Sol. (4)
M = 0 1 2 μ N N A
= 2.4 π × 10−4 H
97. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C
represents the output.
The circuit represents
(1) NOR gate
(2) AND gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) OR gate
A
B
C
Sol. (4)
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
98. A body is at rest at x = 0. At t = 0, it starts moving in the positive x-direction with a constant
acceleration. At the same instant another body passes through x = 0 moving in the positive xdirection
with a constant speed. The position of the first body is given by x1(t) after time ‘t’ and that of
the second body by x2(t) after the same time interval. Which of the following graphs correctly
describes (x1 – x2)as a function of time ‘t’?
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(1)
O t
(x1 −x2)
(2)
O t
(x1 −x2)
(3)
O t
(x1 −x2)
(4)
O t
(x1 −x2)
Sol. (2)
x1(t) = 1 at2
2
x2(t) = vt
x1 − x2 = 1 at2
2
− vt
99. An experiment is performed to find the refractive index of glass using a travelling microscope. In this
experiment distance are measured by
(1) a vernier scale provided on the microscope (2) a standard laboratory scale
(3) a meter scale provided on the microscope (4) a screw gauage provided on the microscope
Sol. (1)
100. A thin spherical shell of radius R has charge Q spread uniformly over its surface. Which of the
following graphs most closely represents the electric field E(r) produced by the shell in the range 0 ≤
r< ∞ , where r is the distance from the centre of the shell?
(1)
O r
E(r)
R
(2)
O r
E(r)
R
(3)
O r
E(r)
R
(4)
O r
E(r)
R
Sol. (1)
E(r) =
≥ πε 2
0
0 if r < R
Q if r R
4 r
101. A 5V battery with internal resistance 2Ω and a 2V battery with internal resistance 1Ω are connected to
a 10Ω resistor as shown in the figure. The current in the 10 Ω resistor is
2V
2 Ω 1 Ω
5V
P1
P2
10 Ω
(1) 0.27 A P2 to P1 (2) 0.03 A P1 to P2
(3) 0.03 A P2 to P1 (4) 0.27 A P1 to P2
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Sol. (3)
P2 P1
5 0 2
V V 2 10 1
1 1 1
2 10 1
+ −
− =
+ +
P2 P1 V V
I 0.03
10
−
= = from P2 → P1
5 V
10 Ω
P1
2 V
2 Ω 1 Ω
P2
i
102. A horizontal overhead power line is at a height of 4m from the ground and carries a current of 100 A
from east to west. The magnetic field directly below it on the ground is (μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T m A-1)
(1) 2.5 × 10-7 T southward (2) 5 × 10-6 T northward
(3) 5 × 10-6 T southward (4) 2.5 × 10-7 northward
Sol. (3)
B =
7
0 i 4 10 100
2 R 2 4
μ π × −
= ×
π π
= 5 × 10−6 T southward
103. Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are εr and μr, respectively. Which of the following
values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?
(1) εr = 0.5, μr = 1.5 (2) εr = 1.5, μr = 0.5
(3) εr = 0.5, μr = 0.5 (4) εr = 1.5, μr = 1.5
Sol. (2)
104. Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale. The
total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge has a
zero error of − 0.03 mm while measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale
reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The
diameter of the wire is
(1) 3.32 mm (2) 3.73 mm
(3) 3.67 mm (4) 3.38 mm
Sol. (4)
Diameter = M.S.R. + C.S.R × L.C. + Z.E. = 3 + 35 × (0.5/50) + 0.03 = 3.38 mm
105. An insulated container of gas has two chambers separated by an insulating partition. One of the
chambers has volume V1 and contains ideal gas at pressure P1 and temperature T1. The other
chamber has volume V2 and contains ideal gas at pressure P2 and temperature T2. If the partition is
removed without doing any work on the gas, the final equilibrium temperature of the gas in the
container will be
(1) 1 2 1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2 2 1
TT (PV P V )
PVT P V T
+
+
(2) 1 1 1 2 2 2
1 1 2 2
PVT P V T
PV P V
+
+
(3) 1 1 2 2 2 1
1 1 2 2
PVT P V T
PV P V
+
+
(4)1 2 1 1 2 2
1 1 1 2 2 2
TT (PV P V )
PVT P V T
+
+
Sol. (1)
U = U1 + U2
T =
( )
( )
1 1 2 2 1 2
1 1 2 2 2 1
PV P V TT
PV T P V T
+
+
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AIEEE–2008, PAPER(C−5)
ANSWERS
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1)
5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (3)
9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (4)
13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (1)
17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (4)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1)
25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (4)
33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (4)
37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (2)
41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (4)
45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (1)
49. (4) 50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (2)
53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (2)
57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (3) 60. (1)
61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (2) 64. (4)
65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (4)
69. (2) 70. (3) 71. (2) 72. (4)
73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (2)
77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (4)
81. (1) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. no option is correct
85. (4) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (2)
89. (3) 90. (3) 91. (3) 92. (3)
93. (3) 94. (2) 95. (1) 96. (4)
97. (4) 98. (2) 99. (1) 100. (1)
101. (3) 102. (3) 103. (2) 104. (4)
105. (1)