A city in the lovely India.
+91 9925935398

AIIMS 2005 Exam Paper

At StudyMoz.com, We have perfect study material for students. We’ve AIIMS Exam Papers of past 20 years from 1994 to 2014. We’ve a lot of other content of the site as well like IIT JEE, Boards, Sample, BITSAT, AIEEE, JEE Advanced, HOTS, Syllabus, Important Questions, Notes etc. So we’ve hope our site was of some help to you. Good Luck!

OR

View the PDF online below 

( Note : Please be patient while the PDF loads completely, it depends on your internet connection purely. )
Tags : AIIMS, AIIMS 2012 Paper, AIIMS 2012 Question Paper, AIIMS 2012 Solution, AIIMS 2012 Paper with solutions, AIIMS 2012 Paper Solved, AIIMS 2012 Paper Online, AIIMS 2012 Important Questions, AIIMS 2012 Extrance Paper, Medical 2012 Exam Paper, AIIMS 2012 Extrance Paper Solved, AIIMS 2012 Previous Year Paper, AIIMS 2012 Paper Solved AIIMS – 2005 Full Paper Physics 1. Consider an n-p-n transistor amplifier in common-emitter configuration. The, current gain of the transistor is 100. If the collector current changes by 1 mA, what will be the change in emitter current ? 1) 1. 12 mA 2) 1.01 mA 3) 0.001 mA 4) 100 mA 2. For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional change in the object’s volume (∆V/V) and its bulk modulus (B) are related as : 1) (∆V/V)B2) (∆V/V)1/B3) (∆V/V)B24) (∆V/V)B-23. In case of linearly polarised light, the magnitude of the electric field vector : 1) does not change with time 2) varies periodically with time 3) increases and decrease linearly with time 4) is parallel to the direction of propagation 4. The magnetic moment (µ)of a revolving electron around the nucleus varies with principal quantum number n as : 1) µn2) µ1/n3) µn34) µ1/n35. A particle having charge q and mass m is project with velocity electric field. Change in momentum1) √(3) M 2) q E0 t 3) (q E0 t/m) 4) zero1/35in unifromduring any time interval t is given by :6. A magnet is made to oscillate with a particular frequency, passing through a coil as shownin figure. The time variation of the magnitude of emf generated across the coil during one cycle is : 1)2)3)4)7. The apparent depth of water in cylindrical water tank of diameter 2R cm is reducing at the rate of x cm/min when water is being drained out at a constant rate. The amount of water drained in cc per minute is : (n1 = refractive index of air, n2 = refractive index of water) 1) (xπR2 n1)/n2 2) (xπR2 n2)/n1 3) (2πR n1)/n2 4) πR2 x 8. A block of mass 10 kg is moving in x-direction with a constant speed of 10 m/s. It is subjected to a retarding force F = − 0.1 x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to x = 30 m. Its final kinetic energy will be : 1) 475 J2/352) 450 J 3) 425 J 4) 400 J 9. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What is the potential energy of the electron in this state ? 1) Zero 2) -27.2 eV 3) 35.2 eV 4) 40 eV 10. For sky wave propagation of 10 MHz signal, what should be the minimum electron density in ionosphere ? 1) ~ 1.2 x 1012 m -3 2) ~ 105 m -3 3) ~ 104 m -3 4) ~ 1024 m -3 11. In a semiconducting material the mobilities of electrons and holes are µe and µh respectively. which of the following is true ? 1) µe > µh 2) µe < µh 3) µe = µh 4) µe < 0; µh > 0 12. In the figure given the position-time graph of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is shown. The impulse at t = 2s is :1) 0.2 kg m s-1 2) -0.4 kg m s-1 3) 0.6 kg m s-1 4) – 0.6 kg m s-1 13. The condition for a uniform spherical mass m of radius r to be a black hole is : [G = gravitational constant and g = accele-ration due to gravity] 1) (2Gm/r)1/2 ≤ c3/352) (2Gm/r)1/2 = c 3) (2Gm/r)1/2 ≥ c 4) (gm/r)1/2 ≥ c 14. The circuit shown below acts as :1) tuned filter 2) low pass filter 3) high pass filter 4) rectifier 15. Dimensions of electrical resistance are : 1) [ML2 T -3 A-1] 2) [ML2 T -3 A-2] 3) [ML1 T -3 A-2] 4) [ML-1T 2 A2] 16. The voltage gain of the following amplifier is :1) 50 2) 100 3) 150 4) 200 17. A radioactive material has half-life of 10 days. What fraction of the material would remain after 30 days ? 1) 0.05 2) 0.025 3) 0.125 4) 0.175 18. A given shaped glass tube having uniform cross-section is filled with water and is mounted on a rotatable shaft as shown in figure. If the tube is rotated with a constant angular 4/35velocity ω then :1) water levels in both sections A and B go up 2) water level in section A goes up and that in B comes down 3) water level in section A comes down and that in B it goes up 4) water levels remain same in both sections 19. A ladder is leaned against a smooth wall and it is allowed to slip on a frictionless floor. Which figure represents the track of its centre of mass ? 1)2)3)4)20. For ensuring dissipation of same energy in all three resistors (R1, R2, R3) connected as shown in figure, their values must be related as :5/351) R1 = R2 = R3 2) R2 = R3 and R1 = 4R2 3) R2 = R3 and R1 = (1/4) R2 4) R1 = R2 + R3 21. A horizontal platform is rotating with uniform angular velocity around the vertical axis passing through its centre. At some instant of time a viscous fluid of mass m is dropped at the centre and is allowed to spread out and finally fall. The angular velocity during this period : 1) decreases continuously 2) decreases initially and increases again 3) remains unaltered 4) increases continuously 22. A conducting ring of radius 1 m is placed in an uniform magnetic field B of 0.01 T oscillating with frequency 100 Hz with its plane at right angle to B. What will be the induced electric field? 1) π V/m 2) 2 V/m 3) 15 V/m 4) 72 V/m 23. “Parsec” is the unit of : 1) time 2) distance 3) Linear velocity 4) angular momentum 24. Solid targets of different elements are bombarded by highly energetic electron beams. The frequency (f) of the characteristic X-rays emitted from different targets varies with atomic number Z as : 1) f√Z2) fZ23) fZ34) fZ 3/225. A candle of diameter d is floating on a liquid in a cylindrical container of diameter D (D>>d) as shown in figure. If it is burning at the rate of 2 cm/h then the top of the candle will : 6/35as shown in figure. If it is burning at the rate of 2 cm/h then the top of the candle will :1) remain at the same height 2) fall at the rate of 1 cm/h 3) fall at the rate of 2 cm/h 4) go up at the rate of 1 cm/h 26. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length 200 cm and an eye piece with focal length 2 cm. If this telescope is used to see a 50 m tall building at a distance of 2 km, what is the height of the image of the building formed by the objective lens ? 1) 5 cm 2) 10 cm 3) 15 cm 4) 20 cm 27. Two concentric conducting thin spherical shells A and B having radii rA and rB (rB > rA) are charged to QA and − QB (|QB| > |QA|). The electrical field along a line. (passing through the centre) is : 1)2)3)4)7/3528. A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface, shown in figure with a translational velocity v m/s. If it is to climb the inclined surface then v should be :1) ≥ √((10/7) gh) 2) ≥ √(5 gh) 3) 5 gh 4) (10/7) gh 29. What should be the maximum acceptance angle at the air-core interface of an optical fibre if nl and n2 are the refractive indices of the core and the cladding, respectively ? 1) sin-1 (n2/n1) 2) sin-1 √(n21 – n22) 3) [tan-1 (n2/n1)] 4) [tan-1 (n1/n2)] 30. Two infinitely long parallel conducting plates having surface charge densities + σ and – σ respectively, are separated by a small distance. The medium between the plates is vacuum. It ε o is the dielectric permittivity of vacuum, then the electric field in the region between the plates is : 1) zero 2) σ/2ε o V/m 3) σ/ε o V/m 4) σ/3ε o V/m 31. Which of the following is an amorphous solid ? 1) Glass 2) Diamond 3) Salt 4) Sugar 32. According to Hubble’s law, the red-shift (Z) of a receding galaxy and its distance r from earth are related as : 1) Zr2) Z1/r3) Z1/r34) Zr3/233. A 50 Hz AC source of 20 V is connected across R and C as shown in figure. The voltage across R is 12 V. The voltage across C is :8/351) 4 V 2) 8 V 3) 16 V 4) not possible to determine unless values of R and C are given 34. When exposed to sunlight, thin films of oil on water often exhibit brilliant colours due to the phenomenon of : 1) interference 2) diffraction 3) dispersion 4) polarisation 35. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity v0, it reaches a maximum height of h. If one wishes to triple the maximum height then the ball should be thrown with velocity : 1) √3 v0 2) 3 v0 3) 4 v0 4) 2 v0 36. Which of the following functions represents a simple harmonic oscillation ? 1) sin ωt – cos ωt 2) sin 2 ωt 3) sin ωt + sin 2 ωt 4) sin ωt – sin 2 ωt 37. A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation he finds his weight less ? 1) When the elevator moves upward with constant acceleration 2) When the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration 3) When the elevator moves upward with uniform velocity 4) When the elevator moves downward with uniform velocity 38. Which of the following logic gates is an universal gate ? 1) OR2) NOT3) AND4) NAND39. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of intensity I (W/m 2) on a non-reflecting surface is :9/35[c is the velocity of light] 1) Ic/2 2) Ic2/2 3) I/c 4) I/c2 40. Energy required to break one bond in DNA is approximately : 1) ~ 1 eV 2) ~ 0.01 eV 3) ~ 0.001 eV 4) ~ 1.1 eV Directions for question 41 to 60 : In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as : (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. (c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (d) If both assertion and reason are false. 41. Assertion : Specific gravity of a fluid is a dimensionless quantity. Reason : It is the ratio of density of fluid to the density of water. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)42. Assertion : Frictional forces are conservative forces. Reason : Potential energy can be associated with frictional forces. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)43. Assertion : By roughening the surface of a glass sheet its transparency can be reduced. Reason : Glass sheet with rough surface absorbs more light. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)44. Assertion : Diode lasers are used as optical sources in optical communication. Reason : Diode lasers consume less energy. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)3) (c)4) (d)45. Assertion : Diamond glitters brilliantly . Reason : Diamond does not absorb sunlight. 1) (a)2) (b)46. Assertion : The energy (E) and momentum (p) of a photon are related by p = E/c.10/35Reason : The photon behaves like a particle. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)47. Assertion : The clouds in sky generally appear to be whitish. Reason : Diffraction due to clouds is efficient in equal measure at all wavelengths. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)48. Assertion : Television signals are received through sky-wave propagation. Reason : The ionosphere reflects electromagnetic waves of frequencies greater than a certain critical frequency. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)49. Assertion : The logic gate NOT can be built using diode. Reason : The output voltage and the input voltage of the diode have 180° phase difference. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)50. Assertion : The resolving power of a telescope is more if the diameter of the objective lens is more. Reason : Objective lens of large diameter collects more light. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)51. Assertion : Reversible systems are difficult to find in real world. Reason : Most processes are dissipative in nature. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)52. Assertion : For system of particles under central force field, the total angular momentum is. conserved. Reason : The torque acting on such a system is zero. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)53. Assertion : Air quickly leaking out of a balloon becomes cooler. Reason : The leaking air undergoes adiabatic expansion. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)54. Assertion : It is not possible to use 35Cl as the fuel for fusion energy. Reason : The binding energy of 35Cl is too small. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)55. Assertion : The number of electrons in a p-type silicon semiconductor is less than the number of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature. Reason : It is due to law of mass action. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)11/354) (d)56. Assertion : In a common-emitter transister amplifier the input current is much less than the output current. Reason : The common-emitter transistor amplifier has very high input impedance. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)57. Assertion : A body that is a good radiator is also a good absorber of radiation at a given wavelength. Reason : According to Kirchhoff’s law the absorptivity of a body is equal to its emissivity at a given wavelength. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)58. Assertion : In pressure-temperature (P-T) phase diagram of water, the slope of the melting curve is found to be negative. Reason : Ice contracts on melting to water. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)59. Assertion : For higher temperatures the peak emission wavelength of a black body shifts to lower wavelengths. Reason : Peak emission wavelengths of a black body is proportional to the fourth-power of temperature. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)60. Assertion : For Reynold’s number Re > 2000, the flow of fluid is turbulent. Reason : Inertial forces are dominant compared to the viscous forces at such high Reynold’s numbers. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c) Chemistry61. Among the following the most stable compound is : 1) cis-2, 3-cyclohexanediol 2) trans-2, 3-cyclohexanediol 3) cis-, 3-cyclohexenediol 4) trans-1, 3-cyclohexanediol 62. Correct configuration of the following is :1) 2R, 3S 2) 1S, 2R 3) 1R, 2S12/354) (d)4) 1R, 2R 2NO(g) + Cl2(g); Kc at 427°C is 3 x 10-6 L mol-1. The value of63. For reaction, 2NOCl(g) KP is nearly : 1) 4.50 x 10-5 2) 6.50 x 10-5 3) 8.50 x 10-4 4) 1.72 x 10-464. Which one of the following statements is true for protein synthesis (translation) ? 1) Amino acids are directly recognised by m-RNA 2) The third base of the codon is less specific 3) Only one codon codes for an amino acid 4) Every t-RNA molecule has more than one amino acid attachment 65. If Z is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closest packing sequence ….ABC ABC …., the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to : 1) Z2) 2Z3) Z/266. The chemical reaction, 2AgCl(g) + H2(g) → 2HCl(aq) + 2Ag(s) taking place in a galvanic cell is represented by the notation : 1) Pt(s) |H2(g), 1 bar | 1 M KCl(aq)| AgCl(s)| Ag(s) 2) Pt(s) | H2(g), 1 bar | 1 M HCl(aq) | 1M Ag+(aq) | Ag(s) 3) Pt(s) | H2(g), 1 bar | 1 M HCl(aq) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s) 4) Pt(s) | H2(g), 1 bar | 1 M HCl(aq) | Ag(s)| AgCl(s) 67. ∆H0f (298 K) of methanol is given by the chemical equation : 1) CH4(g) + (1/2) O2(g) → CH3OH(g) 2) C(graphite) + (1/2) O2(g) +2H2(g) → CH3OH(l) 3) C(diamond) + (1/2) O2(g) + 2H2(g) → CH3OH(l) 4) CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH3OH(l) 68. 3-phenylpropene on reaction with HBr gives (as a major product) : 1) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3 2) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3 3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br 4) C6H5CH(Br)CH = CH213/354) Z/469. In which of the following pairs both the complexes show optical isomerism ? 1) cis – [Cr(C2O4)2Cl2]3- cis – [Co(NH3)4Cl2] 2) [Co(en)3] Cl3, cis – [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl 3) [PtCl(dien)] Cl, [NiCl2Br2]24) [Co(NO3)3(NH3)3], cis – [Pt(en)2Cl2] 70. For the reaction of one mole of zinc dust with one mole of sulphuric acid in a bomb calorimeter, ∆U and w corresponds to : 1) ∆U < 0, w = 0 2) ∆U < 0, w < 0 3) ∆U > 0, w = 0 4) ∆U > 0, w > 0 71. Which of the following is a carbonate ore ? 1) Pyrolusite 2) Malachite 3) Diaspore 4) Cassiterite 72. The major product formed in the following reaction is :1)2) 3) 4)73. Which one of the following biomolecules is insoluble in water ? 1) α-keratin 2) Haemoglobin 3) Ribonuclease 4) Adenine 74. 238U92 emits 8 α-particles and 6 β-particles. The neutron/proton ratio in the product14/35nucleus is : 1) 58/41 2) 59/40 3) 62/41 4) 61/40 75. When 10 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid (pKa = 5.0) is titrated against 10 mL of 0.1 M ammonia solution (pKb = 5.0), the equivalence point occurs at pH : 1) 3.02) 4.03) 7.04) 8.076. An aqueous solution of CoCl2 on addition of excess of concentrated HCl turns blue due to formation of : 1) [Co(H2O)4Cl2] 2) [Co(H2O)2Cl4]23) [CoCl4]24) [Co(H2O)2Cl2] 77. Among the following pairs of ions, the lower oxidation state in aqueous solution is more stable than the other, in : 1) Ti+ , Ti3+ 2) Cu+ , Cu2+ 3) Cr2+ , Cr3+ 4) V2+ , VO2+ 78. CH3CO2C2H5 on reaction with sodium ethoxide in ethanol gives A, which on heating in the presence of acid gives B. Compound B is : 1) CH3COCH2COOH 2) CH3COCH3 3) 4)79. Among the following which one does not act as an intermediate in Hofmann rearrangement ? 1) RNCO 2) RCON 3) RCO HBr 4) RNC 80. α-particles can be detected using :15/351) thin aluminium sheet 2) barium sulphate 3) zinc sulphide screen 4) gold foil 81. The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He+ is : 1) 0.02) 22.93) 26.54) 102.882. The diamagnetic species is : 1) [Ni(CN)4]22) [NiCl4]23) [CoCl4]24) [CoF 6]283. The number of P—O—P bridges in the structure of phosphorus pentoxide and phosphorus trioxide are respectively : 1) 6, 62) 5, 53) 5, 64) 6, 584. In diborane, the two H—B—H angles are nearly : 1) 75°, 120° 2) 95°, 120° 3) 95°, 120° 4) 135°, 180° 85. An endothermic reaction with high activation energy for the forward reaction is given by the diagram : 1)2)3)16/354)86. Among the following the strongest nucleophile is : 1) C2H5SH 2) CH3COO3) CH3NH2 4) NCCH-2 87. The correct order for the wavelength of absorption in the visible region is : 1) [Ni(NO2)6]4- < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ 2) [Ni(NO2)6]4- < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ 3) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]44) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]488. Among the following molecules O3 (ii) OF 4 (iii) F6 (i) Those having same number of lone pairs on Xe are : 1) (i) and (ii) only 2) (i) and (iii) only 3) (ii) and (iii) only 4) (i), (ii) and (iii) 89. The isoelectronic pair is : 1) Cl2O3, ICl22) ICl2-, ClO2 3) IF 2+, I34) ClO2-, ClF 2+ 90. Which of the following gives propyne on hydrolysis ? 1) Al4C3 2) Mg2C3 3) B4C 4) La4C3 91. For reaction aA → xP, when [A] = 2.2 mM, the rate was found to be 2.4 mM s-1. On reducing concentration of A to half, the rate changes to 0.6 mM s-1. The order of reaction 17/35reducing concentration of A to half, the rate changes to 0.6 mM s-1. The order of reaction with respect to A is : 1) 1.2 2) 2.0 3) 2.4 4) 3.2 92. The major product obtained on treatment of CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 with CH3O- / CH3OH is : 1) CH3CH2CH2CH(OCH3)CH3 2) CH3CH = CHCH3 3) CH3CH2CH = CH2 4) CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH3 93. The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is : 1) Al(OH)3, LiOH 2) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2 3) B(OH)3, Be(OH)2 4) Be(OH)2, Zn(OH)2 94. In the balanced chemical reaction, IO3- + aI- + bH+ → cH2O + dI2 a, b, c and d respectively corresponds to : 1) 5, 6, 3, 3 2) 5, 3, 3, 3 3) 5, 6, 6, 6 4) 5, 5, 5, 5 95. Which of the following molecules is most suitable to disperse benzene in water ? 1)2)3)4)18/3596. C6H5CONHCH3 can be converted into C6H5CH2NHCH3 by : 1) NaBH4 2) H2 - Pd / C 3) LiAlH4 4) Zn - Hg / HCl 97. Which of the following chemicals are used to manufacture methyl isocyanate that caused "Bhopal Tragedy"? (i) Methylamine (ii) Phosgene (iii) Phosphine (iv) Dimethylamine 1) (i) and (iii) 2) (iii) and (iv) 3) (i) and (ii) 4) (ii) and (iv) 98. Which of the following graphs represent relation between initial concentration of reactants and half-life for third order reaction? 1)2)3)4)19/3599. Pyridine is less basic than triethylamine because : 1) pyridine has aromatic character 2) nitrogen in pyridine is sp2-hybridised 3) pyridine is a cyclic system 4) in pyridine, lone pair of nitrogen is delocalised 100. F 2 formed by reacting K2MnF 6 with : 1) SbF 5 2) MnF 3 3) KSbF 6 4) MnF 4 Directions for question 101 to 120 : In each of the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as : (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not, the correct explanation of Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 101. Assertion : Reaction of SO2 and H2S in the presence of Fe2O3 catalyst gives elemental sulphur. Reason : SO2 is a reducing agent. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)102. Assertion : SiF 62- is known but SiCl62- is not. Reason : Size of fluorine is small and its lone pair of electrons interacts with d-orbitals of Si strongly. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)103. Assertion : Borax bead test is not suitable for Al (III). Reason : Al2O3 is insoluble in water. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)104. Assertion : Ozone is powerful oxidising agent in comparison to O2. Reason : Ozone is diamagnetic but O2 is paramagnetic. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)105. Assertion : Potassium ferrocyanide is diamagnetic, whereas potassium ferricyanide is paramagnetic.20/35Reason : Crystal field splitting in ferrocyanide ion is greater than that of ferricyanide ion. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)106. Assertion : Addition of NH4OH to an aqueous solution of BaCl2 in the presence of NH4Cl (excess) precipitates Ba(OH)2. Reason : Ba(OH)2 is insoluble in water. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)107. Assertion : SeCl4 does not have a tetrahedral structure. Reason : Se in SeCl4 has two lone pairs. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)108. Assertion : The molecular weight of acetic acid determined by depression in freezing point method in benzene and water was found to be different. Reason : Water is polar and benzene is non-polar. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)109. Assertion : Compressibility factor for hydrogen varies with pressure with positive slope at all pressures. Reason : Even at low pressure, repulsive forces dominate hydrogen gas. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)110. Assertion : First ionisation energy for nitrogen is lower than oxygen. Reason : Across a period effective nuclear charge decreases. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)111. Assertion : B2 molecule is diamagnetic. Reason : The highest occupied molecular orbital is of σ type. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)112. Assertion : Rate of hydrolysis of methyl chloride to methanol is higher in DMF than in water. Reason : Hydrolysis of methyl chloride follows second order kinetics. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)113. Assertion : Galvanised iron does not rust. Reason : Zinc has a more negative electrode potential than iron. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)114. Assertion : Extraction of iron metal from iron oxide ore is carried out by heating with coke. Reason : The reaction, Fe2O3(s) → Fe(s) + (3/2)O2(g) is a spontaneous process. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)21/354) (d)115. Assertion : Rates of nitration of benzene and hexadeuterobenzene are different. Reason : C—H bond is stronger than C—D bond. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)116. Assertion : t-butyl methyl ether is not prepared by the reaction of t-butyl bromide with sodium methoxide. Reason : Sodium methoxide is a strong nucleophile. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)117. Assertion : Maltose is a reducing sugar which gives two moles of D-glucose on hydrolysis. Reason : Maltose has a 1, 4-β-glycosidic linkage. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d): p−O2N—C6H5COCH3 is prepared by Friedel-Craft's acylation nitrobenzene. Reason : Nitrobenzene easily undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction.118. Assertion1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)of4) (d)119. Assertion : Alkyl isocyanides in acidified water give alkyl formamides. Reason : In isocyanides, carbon first acts as a nucleophile and then as an electrophile. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)120. Assertion : Cyclopentadienyl anion is much more stable than allyl anion. Reason : Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic in character. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)Biology 121. One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is : 1) wildlife sanctuaries 2) biosphere reserves 3) cryopreservation 4) national parks 122. An insect bite may result in inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as : 1) histamine and dopamine 2) histamine and kinins 3) interferons and opsonin 4) interferons and histones22/35123. The family containing mustard and its main characters are : 1) Brassicaceae — Tetramerous flowers, six stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium, siliqua type fruit 2) Brassicaceae — Pentamerous flowers, many stamens, pentacarpellary gynoecium, capsule type fruit 3) Solanaceae — Pentamerous flowers, five stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium berry type fruit 4) Poaceae — Trimerous flowers, three stamens, monocarpellary gynoecium, caryopsis type of fruit 124. Somaclonal variation appears in : 1) organisms produced through somatic hybridization 2) plants growing in highly polluted conditions 3) apomictic plants 4) tissue culture raised plants 125. Which one of the following four secretions(Se) is correctly matched with its source(So), target(T) and nature of action(A) ? 1) Se => Gastrin, So => Stomach lining, T => Oxyntic cell, A => Production of HCl 2) Se => Inhibin, So => Sertolin cell, T => Hypothalamus, A => Inhibition of secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone 3) Se => Enterokinase, So => Duodenum, T => Gall bladder, A => Release of bile juice 4) Se => Atrial Natriuretic Factor(ANF), So => Sinu Atrail Node (SAN) M-cells Atria, T => Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA), A => Inhibition of release of renin 126. Autopolyploids (numeric or quantitative polyploids or intra specific polyploids) like ferns, garden plants, gram, maize, rice, banana, grapes, apple etc., show : 1) increased gene dosage 2) gigas effect and seedless fruits 3) more yields and better adaptation 4) all of the above 127. Three of the following statements regarding cell organelles are correct while one is wrong. Which one is wrong ? 1) Lysosomes are double membraned vesicles budded off from Golgi apparatus and contain digestive enzymes 2) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a network of membranous tubules and helps in transport, synthesis and secretion 3) Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes, lack pigment but contain their own DNA and protein synthesizing machinery 4) Sphaarosomes are single membrane bound and are associated with synthesist and storage of lipids 128. The given graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of reaction of the23/35eyzyme green gram-phosphatase. What does the graph indicate ?1) The rate of enzyme reaction is directly proportional to the substrate concentration 2) Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the reaction mixture 3) Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex 4) At higher substrate concentration the pH increases 129. Which one of the following groups of structures/organs have similar function ? 1) Typhlosole in earthworm, intestinal villi in rat and contractile vacuole in Amoeba 2) Nephridia in earthworm, Malpighian tubules in cockroach and urinary tubules in rat 3) Antennae of cockroach, tympanum of frog and clitellum of earthworm 4) Incisors of rat, gizzard (proventriculus) of cockroach and tube feet of starfish 130. Genetic diversity in agricultural crops is threatened by : 1) introduction of high yielding varieties 2) intensive use of fertilizers 3) extensive intercropping 4) intensive use of biopesticides 131. Primary source of allelic variation is : 1) independent assortment 2) recombination 3) mutation 4) polyploidy 132. Given below is a pedigree chart showing the inheritance of a certain sex-linked trait in humans.The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is : 1) dominant X-linked 2) recessive X-linked24/353) dominant Y-linked 4) recessive Y-linked 133. Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between : 1) two light chains 2) two heavy chains 3) one heavy and one light chains 4) either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of antigen 134. Formation of non-functional methaemoglobin causes blue-baby syndrome. This is due to : 1) excess of arsenic concentration in drinking water 2) excess of nitrates in drinking water 3) deficiency of iron in food 4) increased methane content in the atmosphere 135. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygene. Following the cross AABBCC (dark colour) x aabbcc (light colour), in F 2 generation what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent ? 1) Half 2) Less than 5 per cent 3) One third 4) None of these 136. Which one of the following is a correct statement ? 1) “Bt” in “Bt-cotton” indicates that it is a genetically modified organism produced through biotechnology 2) Somatic hybridization involves fusion of two complete plant cells carrying desired genes 3) The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced from transgenic Brassica napus seeds 4) “Flavr Savr” variety of tomato has enhanced the production of ethylene which improves its taste 137. In which one of the following would you expect to find glyoxysomes ? 1) Endosperm of wheat 2) Endosperm of castor 3) Palisade cells in leaf 4) Root hairs 138. Given below is one of the types of ecological pyramids. This type represents :25/351) pyramid of numbers in a grassland 2) pyramid of biomass in a fallow land 3) pyramid of biomass in a lake 4) energy pyramid in a spring 139. Many cells function properly and divide mitotically even though they do not have : 1) plasma membrane 2) cytoskeleton 3) mitochondria 4) plastids 140. Which one of the following statement pertaining to pollutants is corrrect ? 1) DDT is a non-biodegradable pollutant 2) Excess fluoride in drinking water causes osteoporosis 3) Excess cadmium in drinking water causes black foot disease 4) Methylmercury in water may cause “Itai Itai” disease 141. In an experiment freshly hatched larvae of an insect (khapra beetle) were reared on a basal diet (complete diet without cholesterol) with increasing amounts of cholesterol. Results obtained are shown in the graph given in the table :The graph indicates : 1) cholesterol is an essential dietary requirement of khapra beetle 2) growth of khapra beetle is directly proportional to cholesterol concentration 3) cholesterol concentration of 2 µ/g diet is the optimum level 4) growth of khapra beetle in inhibited when cholesterol concentration exceeds 5 µ/g diet 142. A tumour inducing plasmid widely used in the production of transgenic plant is that of :26/351) Escherichia coli 2) Bacillus thuringiensis 3) Staphylococcus aureus 4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens 143. Gibberellins can promote seed germination because of their influence on : 1) rate of cell division 2) production of hydrolyzing enzymes 3) synthesis of abscisic acid 4) absorption of water through hard seed coat 144. Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal menstrual cycle ? 1) Release of egg — 5th day 2) Endometrium regenerates — 5-10 days 3) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation — 11-18 days 4) Rise in progesterone level — 1-15 days 145. Which one of the following correctly represents an organism and its ecological niche ? 1) Vallisneria and pond 2) Desert locust (Scistocerca) and desert 3) Plant lice (aphids) and leaf 4) Vultures and dense forest 146. Two of the body parts which do not appear in MRI may be : 1) molar teeth and eye lens 2) scapula and canines 3) ligaments and ribs 4) tendons and premolars 147. Which one of the following features is common in silverfish, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn ? 1) Three pairs of legs and segmented body 2) Chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae 3) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton 4) Cephalothorax and tracheae 148. Based on cellular mechanisms there are two major types of regeneration found in the animals. Which one of the following is the correct example of the type mentioned ? 1) Morphollaxis — Regeneration of two transversely cut equal pieces of a Hydra into two small Hydra 2) Epimorphosis — Replacement of old and dead erythrocytes by the new ones27/353) Morphollaxis — Healing up of a wound in the skin 4) Epimorphosis — Regneration of crushed and filtered out pieces of a Planaria into as many new Planarian 149. C-DNA probes are copied from the messenger RNA molecules with the help of : 1) restriction enzymes 2) reverse transcriptase 3) DNA polymerase 4) adenosine deaminase 150. The “Cri-du-Chat” syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving : 1) deletion 2) duplication 3) inversion 4) translocation 151. A young drug addict used to show symptoms of depressed brain activity, feeling of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness. Possibly he was taking : 1) amphetamine 2) marijuna 3) pethidine 4) valium 152. Double fertilization involves : 1) fertilization of the egg by two male gametes 2) fertilization of two eggs in the same embryo sac by two sperms brought by one pollen tube 3) fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two sperms brought by different pollen tubes 4) fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two sperms brought by the same pollen tube 153. Which one of the following statements pertaining to plant structure is correct ? 1) Cork lacks stomata but lenticels carry out transpiration 2) Passage cells help in transfer of food from cortex to phloem 3) Sieve tube elements possess cytoplasm but no nuclei 4) The shoot apical meristem has a quiescent centre 154. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to salt water balance inside the body of living organisms ? 1) When water is not available camels do not produce urine but store urea in tissues 2) Salmon fish excretes lot of stored salt through gill membrane when in fresh water 3) Paramecium discharges concentrated salt solution by contractile vacuoles28/354) The body fluids of freshwater animals are generally hypotonic to surrounding water 155. Electroporation procedure involves : 1) fast passage of food through sieve pores in phloem elements with the help of electric stimulation 2) opening of stomatal pores during night by artificial light 3) making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs 4) purification of saline water with the help of a membrane system 156. When synapsis is complete all along the chromosome, the cell is said to have entered a stage called : 1) zygotene 2) pachytene 3) diplotene 4) diakinesis 157. Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description ? 1) Thyroid — hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism 2) Thymus — starts undergoing atrophy after puberty 3) Parathyroid — secretes parathormone which promotes movement of calcium ions from blood into bones during calcification 4) Pancreas — delta cells of the islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone which stimulates glycolysis in liver 158. Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum bio-diversity in our country ? 1) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch 2) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal 3) Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats 4) Kerala and Punjab 159. A cross section at the midpoint of the middle piece of a human sperm will show : 1) centriole, mitochondria and 9+2 arrangement of microtubules 2) centriole and mitochondria 3) mitochondria. and 9+2 arrangement of microtubules 4) 9+2 arrangment of microtubules only 160. Which one of the following is correct matching of a plant, its habit and the forest type where it normally occurs ? 1) Prosopis, tree, scrub 2) Saccharum officinarum, grass, forest 3) Shorea robusta, herb, tropical rain forest29/354) Acacia catechu, tree, coniferous forest Directions for question 161 to 180 : In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Select the most appropriate responce as — (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion Reason are false statements. 161. Assertion : Senescence is the time when age associated defects are manifested. Reason : Certain genes may be undergoing sequential switching on and off during one’s life. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)162. Assertion : In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryotes). Reason : Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population which express the desired gene. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)163. Assertion : Methane component of green house gases contributing to global warming is about 20 per cent. Reason : Introduction of multi-point fuel injection engines in automobiles has decreased methane content in the exhausts. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)164. Assertion : A suspended particulate matter (SPM) is an important pollutant released by diesel vehicles. Reason : Catalytic converters greatly reduce pollution caused by automobiles. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)165. Assertion : Interferons are a type of antibodies produced by body cells infected by bacteria. Reason : Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)166. Assertion : Organ transplantation patients are given immunosuppressive drugs. Reason : Transplanted tissue has antigens which stimulate the specific immune response of the recipient. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)167. Assertion : Persons suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII. Reason : Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low30/35concentration. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)168. Assertion : In humans, the gamete contrtibuted by the male determines whether the child produced will be male or female. Reason : Sex in humans is a polygenic trait depending upon a cumulative effect of some genes on X-chromosome and some on Y-chromosome. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)169. Assertion : Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semiautonomous organelles. Reason : They are formed by division of pre-existing organelles as well as contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)170. Assertion : Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus but translation occurs in the cytoplasms. Reason : m-RNA is transferred from the nucleus into the cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino acids are available for protein synthesis. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)171. Assertion : The fungi are widespread in distribution and they even live on or inside other plants and animals. Reason : Fungi are able to grow anywhere on land, water or on other organisms because they have a variety of pigments, including chlorophyll, carotenoids fucoxanthin and phycoerythrin. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)172. Assertion : C4 photosynthetic pathway is more efficient than the C3 pathway. Reason : Photorespiration is suppressed in C4 plants. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)173. Assertion : Presently, the global atmosphere is warming up. Reason : The depletion of stratospheric ozone layer has resulted in increase in ultraviolet radiations reaching the earth. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)174. Assertion : Human ancestors never used their tails and so the tail expressing gene has disappeared in them. Reason : Lamarck’s theory of evolution is popularly called theory of continuity of germ plasm. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)175. Assertion : Comparative biochemistry provides a strong evidence in favour of common ancestry of living beings.31/35Reason : Genetic code is universal. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)176. Assertion : Darwin’s finches show a variety of beaks suited for eating large seeds, flying insects and cactus seeds. Reason : Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin’s finches radiated out from South American mainland to different geographical areas of the Galapagos Islands, where they found competitor-free new habitates. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)177. Assertion : The atmospheric concentration of CO2 at which photosynthesis just compensates for respiration is referred to as CO2 compensation point. Reason : The CO2 compensation point is reached when the amount of CO2 uptake is less than that generated through respiration because the level of CO2 in the atmosphere is more than that required for achieving CO2 compensation point. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)178. Assertion : The sex ratio of Kerala is highest in India. Reason : In countries like India the population is increasing at a rapid rate. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)179. Assertion : The duck-billed platypus and the spiny ant-eater, both are egg-laying animals yet they are grouped under mammals. Reason : Both the them have seven cervical vertebrae and 12 pairs of cranial nerves. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)180. Assertion : Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this bacterium is associated with the roots of all cereal and pulse crops. Reason : A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome-gets automatically transferred to the crop with which the bacterium is associated. 1) (a)2) (b)3) (c)4) (d)General Knowledge 181. ‘Maoris’ are : 1) inhabitants of New Zeeland 2) inhabitants of Hungary 3) inhabitants of North America 4) inhabitants of North-West Asia 182. World Trade Organisation established in : 1) 19542) 19883) 1994183. Who is the Author of ‘An Area of Darkness’ ?32/354) 19951) Nirad C. Choudhari 2) Vikrarn Seth 3) V.S. Naipaul 4) B.C. Chatterjee 184. Which river is called ‘Bengal’s Sorrow’ ? 1) Hughli 2) Ganga 3) Damodar 4) Koshi 185. Who was the first woman ruler of India ? 1) Raziya Sultan 2) Noor Jahan 3) Chand Biwi 4) Durga Devi 186. Who was the first Indian to win Nobel Prize ? 1) Mother Terresa 2) C.V. Raman 3) Ravindra Nath Tagore 4) Amartya Sen 187. Ascorbic acid is the chemical name of : 1) vitamin A 2) vitamin B 3) vitamin C 4) vitamin D 188. ‘Chittaranjan’ is famous for the : 1) railway coaches 2) locomotives 3) iron and steel 4) heavy machinery 189. In which space Shuttle Kalpana Chawla killed ? 1) Discovery 2) Columbia 3) Sputnik 4) None of the above 190. The Planning Commission was set up in :33/351) January, 1950 2) March, 1950 3) January, 1952 4) March, 1952 191. Who is the inventor of ‘Insulin’ ? 1) Lord Lister 2) Jonos Salk 3) Ronald Ross 4) Banting and Best 192. ‘Brahmo Samaj’ was founded by : 1) Devendra Nath Tagore 2) Keshav Chandra Sen 3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 4) Annie Besant 193. The chemical formulae of Plaster of Paris’ is : 1) CaSO4 . 2H2O 2) Ca (OH)2 3) CaSO4 . 1/2H2O 4) C2H5OH 194. The Tenure of first planning holiday was : 1) 1964 – 1967 2) 1965 – 1968 3) 1966 – 1969 4) 1978 – 1981 195. How many spokes are in Indian National Flag ? 1) 222) 243) 26196. Where is ‘National Defence Academy’ situated ? 1) New Delhi 2) Khadakvasla 3) Dehradun 4) Pune 197. Oldest religious text in the world is : 1) Rig Veda 2) Sama Veda34/354) 283) Yajur Veda 4) Atharva Veda 198. Who was elected as the permanent President of constituent assembly ? 1) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha 2) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 3) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 4) C. Rajgopalachari 199. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India ? 1) The Kushan’s 2) The Gupta’s 3) The Mauryan’s 4) The Indo Greeks 200. How many articles and schedule are there in originally constitution ? 1) 391 articles and 7 schedules 2) 395 articles and 8 schedules 3) 400 articles and 10 schedules 4) 444 articles and 12 schedules35/35Answer Key 1) 22) 23) 24) 15) 26) 17) 28) 19) 210) 111) 112) 113) 314) 115) 216) 217) 318) 119) 320) 321) 222) 223) 224) 225) 226) 127) 328) 129) 230) 331) 132) 133) 334) 135) 136) 137) 238) 439) 340) 141) 142) 443) 344) 245) 246) 147) 348) 449) 450) 151) 152) 153) 154) 355) 156) 357) 158) 159) 360) 161) 462) 163) 464) 265) 266) 267) 268) 169) 270) 171) 272) 473) 174) 375) 376) 377) 178) 179) 480) 381) 382) 183) 184) 285) 386) 187) 188) 489) 490) 291) 292) 293) 494) 195) 396) 497) 398) 499) 1100) 1101) 3102) 1103) 2104) 2105) 3106) 4107) 3108) 1109) 1110) 4111) 4112) 1113) 1114) 3115) 4116) 2117) 3118) 4119) 1120) 1121) 3122) 2123) 1124) 4125) 4126) 3127) 1128) 2129) 2130) 1131) 2132) 1133) 3134) 2135) 2136) 3137) 2138) 3139) 4140) 1141) 1142) 4143) 2144) 2145) 3146) 2147) 3148) 1149) 2150) 1151) 4152) 4153) 3154) 1155) 3156) 2157) 2158) 3159) 1160) 1161) 1162) 1163) 2164) 2165) 4166) 1167) 3168) 3169) 3170) 1171) 3172) 1173) 2174) 4175) 2176) 1177) 3178) 2179) 1180) 4181) 1182) 4183) 3184) 3185) 1186) 3187) 3188) 2189) 2190) 2191) 2192) 3193) 3194) 3195) 2196) 2197) 1198) 2199) 4200) 21/1