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BITSAT
Engineering Entrance Exam
Mathematics
1) If f: R R and g : R R are defined by f(x) = |x| and g(x) = [x
– 3] for x R, then
is equal to
(a) {0, 1}
(b) {1, 2}
(c) {-3, -2}
(d) {2, 3}
2) For any integer n 1, the sum is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3) 9 balls are to be placed in 9 boxes and 5 of the balls cannot fit
into 3 small boxes. The number of ways of arranging one ball in
each of the boxes is
(a) 18720
(b) 18270
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(c) 17280
(d) 12780
4) If npr = 30240 and nCr = 252, then the ordered pair (n, r) is
equal to
(a) (12, 6)
(b) (10, 5)
(c) (9, 4)
(d) (16, 7)
5) If (1 + x + x2 + x3)5 = then is equal to
(a) 128
(b) 256
(c) 512
(d) 1024
6) If a + P = – 2 and a3 + 3 = – 56, then the quadratic equation
whose roots are a and is
(a) x2 + 2x – 16 = 0
(b) x2 + 2x + 15 = 0
(c) x2 + 2x – 12 = 0
(d) x2 + 2x – 8 = 0
7) The cubic equation whose roots are thrice to each of the roots of
x3 + 2×2 – 4x + 1 = 0 is
(a) x3 – 6×2 + 36x + 27 = 0
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(b) x3 + 6×2 + 36x + 27 = 0
(c) x3 – 6×2 – 36x + 27 = 0
(d) x3 + 6×2 – 36x + 27 = 0
8) If A = f(t) = t2 – 3t + 7, then
is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9) is equal to
(a) 0
(b) a + b + c
(c) (a + b + c)2
(d) (a + b + c)3
10) If co is a complex cube root of unity, then sin
is equal to
(a)
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(b)
(c) 1
(d)
11) cosec 20° – sec 20° is equal to
(a) 2
(b) 2 sin 20° – cosec 40°
(c) 4
(d) 4 sin 20°, cosec 40°
12) If tan + tan ( + ) + tan ( + ) = 3, then which of the
following is equal to 1 ?
(a) tan 2
(b) tan 3
(c) tan2
(d) tan3
13) {x R: cos 2x + 2 cos2 x = 2} is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
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14) If sin-1 + sin-1 = , then x is equal to
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 11
15) In ABC, then C is equal to
(a) 90°
(b) 60°
(c) 45°
(d) 30°
16) In a triangle, if r1 = 2r2 = 3r3, then is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17) From the top of a hill h metres high the angles of depressions of
the top and the bottom of a pillar are a and respectively. The
height (in metres) of the pillar is
(a)
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(b)
(c)
(d)
18) The position vectors of P and Q are respectively and , If R is a
point on such that = 5 , then the position vector of
R is
(a) 5 – 4
(b) 5 + 4
(c) 4 – 5
(d) 4 + 5
19) If the position vectors of A, B and C are respectively 2 – + ,
– 3 – 5 and 3 – 4 – 4 , then cos2 A is equal to
(a) 0
(b)
(c)
(d) 1
20) Let be a unit vector, = 2 + – and = + 3 . Then,
maximum value of [ ] is
(a) -1
(b)
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(c)
(d)
21) If A and B are independent events of a random experiment such
that P(A B) = and P(A B) = , then P(A) is equal to (Here,
is the complement of the event E)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
22) For k = 1, 2, 3 the box Bk contains k red balls and (k + 1) white
balls, Let P( ) = P(B2) = 1 and P(B3) = . A box is selected at
random and a ball is drawn from it. If a red ball is drawn, then
the probability that it has come from box B2, is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
23) If the sum of the distances of a point P from two perpendicular
lines in a plane is 1, then the locus of P is a
(a) rhombus
(b) circle
(c) straight line
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(d) pair of straight lines-
24) The transformed equation of 3×2 + 3y2 + 2xy = 2. when the
coordinate axes are rotated through an angle of 45°, is
(a) x2 + 2y2 = 1
(b) 2×2 + y2 = 1
(c) x2 + y2 = 1
(d) x2 + 3y2 = 1
25) If , m, n are in arithmetic progression, then the straight line lx
+ my + n = 0 will pass through the point
(a) (-1, 2)
(b) (1, -2)
(c) (1, 2)
(d) (2, 1)
26) A pair of perpendicular straight lines passes through the origin
and also through the point of intersection of the curve x2 + y2 =
4 with x + y = a. The set containing the value of ‘a’ is
(a) {-2, 2}
(b) {-3, 3}
(c) {-4, 4}
(d) {-5, 5}
27) In ABC the mid points of the sides AB, BC and CA are
respectively (l, 0, 0), (0, m, 0) and (0, 0, n). Then,
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is equal to
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
28) If the lines 2x – 3y = 5 and 3x – 4y = 7 are two diameters of a
circle of radius 7, then the equation of the circle is
(a) x2 + y2 + 2x – 4y – 47 = 0
(b) x2 + y2 = 49
(c) x2 + y2 -2x + 2y -47 = 0
(d) x2 + y2 = 17
29) The inverse of the point (1, 2) with respect to the circle x2 + y2 –
4x – 6y + 9 = 0, is
(a)
(b) (2, 1)
(c) (0, 1)
(d) (1, 0)
30) If 2x + 3y + 12 = 0 and x – y + 4 = 0 are conjugate with
respect to the parabola y 2 = 8x, then is equal to
(a) 2
(b) – 2
(c) 3
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(d) -3
31) The distance between the foci of the hyperbola x2 – 3y2 – 4x – 6y
-11 = 0 is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
32) The radius of the circle with the polar equation r2 – 8r( cos +
sin ) + 15 = 0 is
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 5
33) If f : R R is defined by f(x) = [x – 3] + | x – 4| for x R, then
is equal to
(a) -2
(b) -1
(c) 0
(d) 1
34) If f : R R is defined by
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and if f is continuous at x = 0,
then is equal to
(a) -2
(b) -4
(c) -6
(d) -8
35) If f(2) = 4 and f'(2) = 1, then
is equal to
(a) -2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
36) If y = a sin , then is equal to
(a) cot
(b) tan
(c) sin
(d) cos
37) The equation of the normal to the curve y4 = ax3 at (a, a) is
(a) x + 2y = 3a
(b) 3x – 4y + a = 0
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(c) 4x + 3y = 7a
(d) 4x – 3y = 0
38) The length of the sub tangent at (2, 2) to the curve x5 = 2y4 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
39) If constant, then f(x) is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
40) If
= f(x) + constant, then f(x) is equal to
(a) cos (xex)
(b) sin (xex)
(c) 2 tan-1 (x)
(d) tan (x ex)
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41) dx is equal to
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d)
42) The area (in sq unit) of the region bounded by the curves 2x =
y2 – 1 and x = 0 is
(a)
(b)
(c) 1
(d) 2
43) The solution of the differential equation
is
(a)
(b) x + y = log (cxy)
(c) x – y – log
(d) y – x = log
44) The solution of the differential equation
–
(a) y = ex cos x + c
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(b) y cos x = ex + c
(c) y = ex sin x + c
(d) y sin x = ex + c
45) The solution of the differential equation
xy2 dy – (x3 + y3) dx = 0 is
(a) y3 = 3×3 + c
(b) y3 = 3×3 log (cx)
(c) y3 = 3×3 + log (cx)
(d) y3 + 3×3 = log (cx)
Physics
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46) The energy (E), angular momentum (L) and universal
gravitational constant (G) are chosen as fundamental quantities.
The dimensions of universal gravitational constant in the
dimensional formula of Planck’s constant (h) is
(a) Zero
(b) -1
(c)
(d) 1
47) The component of vector = ax + ay + az along the
direction of is
(a) ax – ay + az
(b) ax – ay
(c) (ax – ay)/
(d) (ax + ay + az)
48) A body thrown vertically up to reach its maximum height in t
second. The total time from the time of projection to reach a
point at half of its maximum height while returning (in second) is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
49) If a body is projected with an angle e to the horizontal, then
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(a) its velocity is always perpendicular to its acceleration
(b) its velocity becomes zero at its maximum height
(c) its velocity makes zero angle with the horizontal at its
maximum height
(d) the body just before hitting the ground, the direction of
velocity coincides with the acceleration
50) A river of salty water is flowing with a velocity 2 m/s, If the
density of the water is 1.2 g/cc, then the kinetic energy of each
cubic metre of water is
(a) 2.4 J
(b) 24 J
(c) 2.4 kJ
(d) 4.8 kJ
51) A ball is dropped from a height h on a floor of coefficient of
restitution e. The total distance covered by the ball just before
second hit is
(a) h(1 – 2e2)
(b) h(1 + 2e2)
(c) h(1 + e2)
(d) he2
52) Two particles A and B initially at rest, move towards each other,
under mutual force of attraction. At an instance when the speed
of A is v and speed of B is 2v, the speed of centre of mass (CM)
is
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(a) Zero
(b) v
(c) 2.5v
(d) 4v
53) Starting from rest, the time taken by a body sliding down on a
rough inclined plane at 45° with the horizontal is, twice the time
taken to travel on a smooth plane of same inclination and same
distance. Then the coefficient of kinetic friction is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.33
(c) 0.50
(d) 0.75
54) A steel wire can withstand a load up to 2940 N. A load of 150 kg
is suspended from a rigid support. The maximum angle through
which the wire can be displaced from the mean position, so that
the wire does not break when the load passes through the
position of equilibrium, is
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 80°
(d) 85°
55) The moment of inertia of a thin circular disc about an axis
passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is 1.
Then, the moment of inertia of the disc about an axis parallel to
its diameter and touching the edge of the rim is
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(a) I
(b) 2 I
(c) I
(d) I
56) The orbit of geo-stationary satellite is circular, the time period of
satellite depends on –
(i) mass of the satellite
(ii) mass of the earth
(iii) radius of the orbit
(iv) height of the satellite from the surface of earth
Which of the following is correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
57) A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude
A and time period T. The displacement of the particles after 2 T
period from its initial position is
(a) A
(b) 4 A
(c) 8 A
(d) Zero
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58) A load of 1 kg weight is a attached to one end of a steel wire of
area of cross-section 3 mm2 and Young’s modulus 1011 N/m2.
The other end is suspended vertically from a hook on a wall,
then the load is pulled horizontally and released. When the load
passes through its lowest position the fractional change in length
is (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 0.3 × 10-4
(b) 0.3 × 10-3
(c) 0.3 × 103
(d) 0.3 × 104
59) The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N/m. The work done
in blowing to form a soap bubble of surface area 40 cm2, (in J),
is
(a) 1.2 × 10-4
(b) 2.4 × 10-4
(c) 12 × 10-4
(d) 24 × 10-4
60) Two rain drops reach the earth with different terminal velocities
having ratio 9: 4. Then the ratio of their volumes is
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 4 : 9
(c) 9 : 4
(d) 27 : 8
61) One litre of oxygen at a pressure of 1 atm and two litres of
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nitrogen at a pressure of 0.5 atm, are introduced into a vessel of
volume 1 L. If there is no change in temperature, the final
pressure of the mixture of gas (in atm) is
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 2
(d) 4
62) There is some change W length when a 33000 N tensile force is
applied on a steel rod of area of cross-section 10-3 m2. The
change of temperature required to produce the same elongation,
if the steel rod is heated, is (The modulus of elasticity is 3 ×
1011N/m2 and the coefficient of linear expansion of steel is 1.1 ×
10-5/oC).
(a) 20°C
(b) 15°C
(c) 10°C
(d) 0°C
63) In the adiabatic compression, the decrease in volume is
associated with
(a) increase in temperature and decrease in pressure
(b) decrease in temperature and increase in pressure
(c) decrease in temperature and decrease in pressure
(d) increase in temperature and increase in pressure
64) Which of the following is true in the case of an adiabatic process,
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where = Cp /Cv?
(a) p1- T1-y = constant
(b) p T1- = constant
(c) pTy = constant
(d) p T = constant
65) Two slabs A and B of equal surface area are placed one over the
other such that their surfaces are completely in contact. The
thickness of slab A is twice that of B. The coefficient of thermal
conductivity or slab A is twice that of B. The first surface of slab
A is maintained at 100°C, while the second surface of slab B is
maintained at 25°C. The temperature at the contact of their
surfaces is
(a) 62.5°C
(b) 45°C
(c) 55°C
(d) 85°C
66) When a sound wave or wavelength A. is propagating in a
medium, the ‘maximum velocity of the particle is equal to the
wave velocity. The amplitude of wave is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
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67) A car is moving with a speed of 72 km/h towards a hill. Car
blows horn at a distance of 1800 m from the hill. If echo is heard
after 10 s, the speed of sound (in m/s) is
(a) 300
(b) 320
(c) 340
(d) 360
68) The refractive index of a material of a planoconcave lens is 5/3,
the radius of curvature is 0.3 m. The focal length of the lens in
air is
(a) – 0.45 m
(b) – 0.6 m
(c) – 0.75 m
(d) -1.0 m
69) Statement (S): Using Huygen’s eye-piece measurements can
be taken but are not correct.
Reason (R): The cross wires, scale .and final image are not
magnified proportionately because the image of the object is
magnified by two lenses, whereas the cross wire scale is
magnified by one lens only.
Identify the correct one of the following
(a) Both (S) and (R) are true, (R) explains (S).
(b) Both (S) and (R) are true, but (R) canner explain (S).
(c) Only (S) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(d) Both-(S) and (R) are wrong.
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70) An achromatic combination of lenses produces –
(a) images in black and white
(b) coloured images ,
(c) images unaffected by variation of refractive index with
wavelength
(d) highly enlarged images are formed
71) In Fraunhofer diffraction experiment, L is the distance between
screen and the obstacle, b is the size of obstacle and A. is
wavelength of incident light. The general condition for the
applicability of Fraunhofer diffraction is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
72) With a standard rectangular bar magnet ‘the time period of a
vibration magnetometer is 4 s. The bar magnet is cut parallel to
its length into four equal pieces. The time period of vibration
magnetometer when one piece is used (in second) (bar magnet
breadth is, small) is
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 2
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73) The magnetised wire of moment M and length is bent in the
form of semicircle of radius r. Then its magnetic moment is
(a)
(b) 2M
(c)
(d) zero
74) A charge of 1 C is divided into two parts such that their
charges are in the ratio of 2: 3. These two charges are kept at a
distance 1 m apart in vacuum. Then, the electric force between
them (in N) is
(a) 0.216
(b) 0.00216
(c) 0.0216
(d) 2.16
75) Two charges +q and -q are kept apart. Then at any point on the
right bisector of line joining the two charges
(a) The electric field strength is zero
(b) The electric potential is zero
(c) Both electric potential and electric field strength are zero
(d) Both electric potential and electric field strength are nonzero
76) A current of 2 A flows in an electric circuit as shown in figure.
The potential difference (VR – VS), in volts (VR and VS are
potentials at R and S respectively) is
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(a) -4
(b) +2
(c) +4
(d) -2
77) When a battery connected across a resistor of 16 , the voltage
across the resistor is 12 V. When the same battery is connected
across a resistor of 10 , voltage across it is 11 V. The internal
resistance of the battery (in ohm) is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
78) One junction of a certain thermoelectric couple is at a fixed
temperature T, and the other junction is at temperature T. The
thermo-electromotive force for this is expressed by
At temperature T = T0, the
thermoelectric power is
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(a) 19 G
(b)
(c) 20 G
(d)
79) In a galvanometer 5% of the total current in the circuit passes
through it. If the resistance of the galvanometer is G, the shunt
resistance 5 connected to the galvanometer is
(a) 19 G
(b)
(c) 20 G
(d)
80) Two concentric coils of 10 turns each are placed in the same
plane. Their radii are 20 cm and 40 cm and carry 0.2 A and 0.3
A. current respectively in opposite directions. The magnetic
induction (in tesla) at the centre is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
81) The number of turns in primary- and secondary coils of a
transformer is 50 and 200 respectively. If the current in the
primary coil is 4 A, then the current in the secondary coil is
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(a) 1 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 5 A
82) X-rays of wavelength 0.140 nm are scattered’ from a block of
carbon. What will be the wave lengths of X-rays scattered at 90°
?
(a) 0.140 nm
(b) 0.142 nm
(c) 0.144 nm
(d) 0.146 nm
83) An X-ray tube produces a continuous spectrum of radiation with
its shortest wavelength of 45 × 10-2 Å. The maximum energy of
a photon in the radiation in eV is (h = 6.62 × 10-34 J-s, c = 3 ×
108 m/s)
(a) 27,500
(b) 22,500
(c) 17,500
(d) 12,500
84) Fpp, Fnn and Fnp are the nuclear forces between proton-proton,
neutron-neutron and neutron-proton respectively. Then relation
between them is
(a) Fpp = Fnn Pnp
(b) Fpp Fnn = Fnp
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(c) Fpp = Fnn = Fnp
(d) Fpp Fnn Fnp
85) Which of the following statements is not correct when a junction
diode is in forward bias?
(a) The width of depletion region decreases.
(b) Free electrons on n-side will move towards’ the junction.
(c) Holes on p-side move towards the junction.
(d) Electron on n-side and holes on p-side will move away
from junction.
86) An electronic transition in hydrogen atom results – in the
formation of Ha line of hydrogen in Lyman series, the energies
associated with the electron in each of the orbits involved in the
transition (in kcal mol-1) are
(a) -313.6, – 34.84
(b) -313.6, -78.4
(c) -78.4, – 34.84
(d) -78.4, -19.6
87) The velocities of two particles A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms-1
respectively. The mass of B is five times the mass of A. The ratio
of their de- Broglie’s wavelength is
(a) 2 : 1
(b) -1: 4
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 4 : 1
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88) If the mass defect of 5B11 is 0.081 u, its average binding energy
(in MeV) is
(a) 8.60
(b) 6.85
(c) 5.60
(d) 5.86
89) The atomic numbers of elements A, B, C and D are Z – 1, Z, Z +
1 and Z + 2, respectively. If ‘B’ is a noble gas, choose the
correct answers from the following statements
(1) ‘A’ has higher electron affinity
(2) ‘C” exists in +2 oxidation state
(3) ‘D’ is an alkaline earth metal
(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1) and (3)
(d) (1), (2) and (3)
90) The bond length of HCI molecule is 1.275 Å and its dipole
moment is 1.03 D. The ionic character of the molecule (in
percent) (charge of the electron = 4.8 × 10-10 esu) is
(a) 100
(b) 67.3
(c) 33.66
(d) 16.83
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91) Which one of the following is a correct set?
(a) H2O, Sp3, angular
(b) BCl3, Sp3, angular
(c) NH+
4, dsp2, square planar
(d) CH4, dsp2, tetrahedral
92) Match the following:
The correct match is
A B C D
(a) iv i ii iii
(b) v i ii iii
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(c) iv i iii ii
(d) i iv ii iii
93) What is the temperature at which the kinetic energy of 0.3 moles
of helium is equal to the kinetic energy of 0.4 moles of argon -at
400 K?
(a) 400 K
(b) 873 K
(c) 533 K
(d) 300 K
94) When 25 g of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in 100.g of water,
the vapour pressure is lowered by 2.25 × 10-1 mm. If the vapour
pressure of water at 20°C is 17.5 mm, what is the molecular
weight of the solute?
(a) 206
(b) 302
(c) 350
(d) 276
95) 50 mL of H2O is added to 50 mL of 1 × 10-3 M barium hydroxide
solution. What is the pH of the resulting solution?
(a) 3.0
(b) 3.3
(c) 11.0
(d) 11.7
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96) Assertion (A): The aqueous solution of CH3COONa is alkaline in
nature.
Reason (R): Acetate ion undergoes anionic hydrolysis
The correct answer is
(a) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is not true.
(d) (A) is not true but (R) is true.
97) When same quantity of electricity is passed through aqueous
AgNO3 and H2SO4 solutions connected in series, 5.04 × 10-2 g of
H2 is liberated. What is the mass of silver (in grams) deposited?
(Eq. wts. of hydrogen = 1. 008, silver = 108)
(a) 54
(b) 0.54
(c) 5.4
(d) 10.8
98) When electric current is passed through acidified water for 1930
s, 1120 mL of H2 gas is collected (at STP) at the cathode. What
is the current passed in amperes?
(a) 0.05
(b) 0.50
(c) 5.0
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(d) 50
99) For a crystal, the angle of diffraction (2 ) is 90° and the second
order line has a d value of 2.28 Å. The wavelength (in Å) of Xrays
used for Bragg’s diffraction is
(a) 1.612
(b) 2.00
(c) 2.28
(d) 4.00
100) In a 500 mL flask, the degree of dissociation of PCl5 at
equilibrium is 40% and the initial amount is 5 moles. The value
of equilibrium constant in mol L-1 for the decomposition of PCl5 is
(a) 2.33
(b) 2.66
(c) 5.32
(d) 4.66
101) For a reversible reaction A B, which one of the following statements
is wrong from the given energy profile diagram?
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(a) Activation energy of forward reaction is greater than
backward reaction
(b) The forward reaction is endothermic
(c) The threshold energy is less than that of activation energy
(d) The energy of activation of forward reaction is equal to the
sum of heat of reaction and the energy of activation of
backward reaction
102) Calculate H in kJ for the following reaction
C(g) + O2(g) CO2(g)
Given that,
H2O(g) + C(g) CO(g) + H2(g);
H = + 131 kJ
H = – 282 kj
H = – 242 kj
(a) -393
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(b) +393
(c) +655
(d) -655
103) Which one of the following graphs represents “Freundlich
adsorption isotherm?
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104) Which one of the following reactions represents the oxidising
property of H2O2?
(a) 2KMnO4 + 3H2O4 + 5H2O2
K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + 5O2
(b) 2K3[Fe(CN)6] + 2KOH+ H2O2
2K4[Fe(CN)6] + 2H2O + O2
(c) PbO2 + H2O2 PbO + H2O + O2
(d) 2KI+ H2SO4 + H2O2 K2SO4 + 12 + 2H2O
105) Which of-the following statements are correct for alkali metal
compounds?
(i) Superoxides are paramagnetic in nature.
(ii) The basic strengths of hydroxides increases down the
group.
(iii) The conductivity of chlorides in their aqueous solutions
decreases down the group.
(iv) The basic nature of carbonates in aqueous solutions is due
to cationic hydrolysis.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
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(b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(d) (iii) and (iv) only
106) Boron halides behave as Lewis acids because of their
nature.
(a) proton donor
(b) covalent
(c) electron deficient
(d) ionising
107) Identify B in the following reaction
(a) corundum
(b) quartz
(c) silica
(d) carborundum
108) The correct order of reducing abilities of hydrides of V group
elements is
(a) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
(b) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(c) NH3 < PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(d) SbH3 > BiH3 > AsH3 > NH3 > PH3
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109) The number of sigma and pi bonds in peroxodisulphuric acid are,
respectively
(a) 9 and 4
(b) 11 and 4
(c) 4 and 8
(d) 4 and 9
110) Which one of the following reactions does not occur?
(a) F2 + 2CI- 2F- + Cl2
(b) Cl2 + 2F- 2CI- + F2
(c) Br2 + 2I- 2Br- + I2
(d) Cl2 + 2Br- 2Cr + Br2
111) The compound in which the number of d – p bonds are equal to
those present in CIO-
4
(a) XeF4
(b) XeO3
(c) XeO4
(d) XeF6
112) [Co(NH3)5 SO4] Br and [Co(NH3)5 Br) SO4 are a pair of
isomers.
(a) ionisation
(b) ligand
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(c) coordination
(d) hydrate
113) Among the following compounds, which one is not responsible
for depletion of ozone layer?
(a) CH4
(b) CFCl3
(c) NO
(d) Cl2
114) Which of the following correspond (s) has ‘Z’ configuration?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (iii)
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115) According to Cahn-Ingold-Prelog sequence rules, the correct
order of priority for the given groups is
(a) – COOH > – CH2OH > – OH > – CHO
(b) – COOH > – CHO > -CH2 OH > – OH
(c) -OH> – CH2OH > – CHO > –COOH
(d) -OH > – COOH > – CHO > – CH2OH
116) What are X and Y respectively in the following reaction?
Z – product butyne product
(a) Na/NH3(liq.) and Pd/BaSO4 + H2
(b) Ni/140°C and Pd/BaSO4 + H2
(c) Ni/140°C and Na/NH3(liq.)
(d) Pd/ BaSO4 + H2 and Na/NH3(liq.)
117) In which of the following reactions, chlorine acts as an oxidising
agent?
(i) CH3CH2OH + Cl2 CH3CHO + HCI
(ii) CH3CHO + Cl2 CCl3 . CHO + HCI
(iii) CH4 + Cl2 CH3CI + HCl
The correct answer is
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
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118) The correct order of reactivity of hydrogen halides with ethyl
alcohol is
(a) HF > HCI > HBr > HI
(b) HCl > HBr > HF > HI
(c) HBr > HCl > HI > HF
(d) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
119) The IUPAC name of
(a) ethoxy propane’
(b) 1, 1-dimethyl ether
(c) 2-ethoxy isopropane
(d) 2-ethoxy propane
120) Acetone on addition to methyl magnesium bromide forms a
complex, which on decomposition with acid gives X and
Mg(OH)Br. Which one of the following is X?
(a) CH3OH
(b) (CH3)3COH
(c) (CH3)2 CHOH
(d) CH3CH2OH
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121) Identify A and B in the following reaction
A B
(a) HI + red P LiAlH4
(b) NV / LiAlH4
(c) LiAIH4 HI + red P
(d) Pd-BaSO4 Zn+ HCl
122) The structure of the compound formed, when nitrobenzene is
reduced by lithium aluminum hydride (LiAlH4) is
123) Match the following:
List-I List-II
(A) Oxyhemoglobin (i) Analgesic
(B) Aspirin (ii) Oxygen carrier
(C) Hemoglobin (iii) Photosynthesis
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(D) Chlorophyll (iv) Oil of winter green
(v) Fe2+ paramagnetic
The correct match is
A B C D
(a) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(d) (v) (ii) (iii) (i)
124) If is the weight average molecular weight and is the
number average molecular weight of a polymer, the poly
dispersity index (PDI) of the polymer is given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
125) Hydrolysis of sucrose with dilute aqueous sulphuric acid yields
(a) 1: 1 D – (+)- glucose; D-(-)-fructose
(b) 1: 2 D – ( + )-glucose; D-(-)-fructose
(c) 1: 1 D-H-glucose; p- (+) -fructose
(d) 1: 2 D-(-)-glucose; D- (+) -fructose
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English & Reasoning
Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the most
appropriate alternative to fill in the blank.
126) The teacher ordered Kamal to leave the room …………… him to
return.
(a) stopped
(b) refused
(c) forbade
(d) callenged
127) I hope you must have ……….. by now that failures are the
stepping stones to success
(a) know
(b) felt
(c) decided
(d) realised
128) In a little published deal, Pepsi Cola has the entire soft drink
market in Afghanistan.
(a) conquered
(b) swallowed
(c) captured
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(d) occupied
Directions: In each of the following questions, put the parts P,
Q, R and S in their proper order to produce the correct sentence.
129) The Bible,
(P) has in many respects
(Q) the sacred book of all Christians
(R) among all the books of the world
(S) a unique character and position
(a) QPSR
(b) QRPS
(c) RPQS
(d) RQPS
130) The ultimate hope
(P) will force the nations
(Q) that the destructive nature of weapons
(R) to give up war
(S) has not been fulfilled
(a) PQRS
(b) PRQS
(c) QPRS
(d) RSQP
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131) It was
(P) in keeping with my mood
(Q) a soft summer evening,
(R) as I walked sedately
(S) in the direction of the new house
(a) QPRS
(b) QRPS
(c) SQPR
(d) SRPQ
Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the
alternative which is most nearly the some in meaning to the
“word given in capitol letters.
132) EPHEMERAL
(a) Uneral
(b) Mythical
(c) Short-living
(d) Artificial
133) STUBBORN
(a) Easy
(b) Obstinate
(c) Willing
(d) Pliable
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134) PROGNOSIS
(a) Indentification
(b) Preface
(c) Forecast
(d) Scheme
Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the
alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in
capitol letters.
135) INFALLIBLE
(a) Erring
(b) Untrustworthy
(c) Dubious
(d) Unreliable
136) GATHER
(a) Separate
(b) Suspend
(c) Scatter
(d) Spend
137) EXALT
(a) Depreciate
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(b) Ennoble
(c) Glorify
(d) Simplify
Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the
alternative which can be substituted for the’ given
words/sentence.
138) Elderly woman in charge of a girl on social occasions
(a) Spinster
(b) Matron
(c) Chaperon
(d) Chandler
139) Land so surrounded by water as to be almost an island
(a) Archipelago
(b) Isthmus
(c) Peninusula
(d) Lagoon
140) A Place adjoining kitchen, for washing dishes etc.
(a) Cellar
(b) Wardrobe
(c) Scullery
(d) Pantry
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Direction: In each of these questions, two figure/words are
given to the left of the sign:: and one figures word to the right of
the sign:: with four alternatives under it out of which one of the
alternatives has the same relationship with the figures/words to
the right of the sign:: as between the two figures/words to the
left of the sign (::). Find the correct alternative.
141)
142) Direction: In the question, three words are given. They are
followed by four words one of which stands for the class to which
these three words belong. Identify that word.
Newspaper, Hoarding. Television
(a) Press
(b) Media
(c) Broadcast
(d) Rumour
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143) Direction: Find out the number which will come next in the
series.
2, 5, 14, 122, 365
(a) 1029
(b) 1094
(c) 1059
(d) 1000
144) Direction: In the given question, some statements are followed
by one or more inferences. The inference or inferences may be
wrongly or correctly drawn. Select one of the alternatives which
contains the correctly drawn inference or inferences.
Which of the conclusions drawn from the given statements are
correct?
Given statements
Foreigners in Jordon without a valid work permit will be
deported. A few Indian emplyees in the building industry in
jordon do not possess valid work permits.
Inferences
(1) All Indians engaged in building industry in Jordon will be
deported to India.
(2) A few Indians in building industry in Jordon will be
deported.
(3) A bulk of Indians in Jordon will be deported to India.
(4) Indian employees in building industry without work permit
will be deported from Jordon.
The inferences correctly drawn are
(a) 1 and 3
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(b) -3 and 4
(c) -2 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
145) Select the series which obeys the given rule:
Any figure can be traced by a single unbroken line without
retracing
146) Select from amongst the four alternative figures, the one which
complete the pattern in the problem figure.
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147) Direction: In the following question a piece of paper is folded,
cut and unfolded. One of the four figures given below is exactly
like this unfolded paper. Find this out.
148) Direction: In the question a figure is given, its components are
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given in one of the four alternative figures. Find this one
149) Direction: In the given question, Jour numbers/number-pairs
are given. Select the one which is different from the other three.
(a) 1234
(b) 2345
(c) 4567
(d) 7896
Direction: Find the group of letters from the four alternative
which is obtained by applying the same rule to this given word to
the right of the sign ::
150) FILM: ADGH:: MILK: ?
(a) ADGF
(b) HDGE
(c) HDGF
(d) HEGFANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c). 6. (d)
7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (a)
19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (b). 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b)25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (b)
43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b)
PHYSICS
46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (b)
52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (d)
58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (d) 61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d)
64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (a)
70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (b)
76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (b) 81. (a)
82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (d)
CHEMISTRY
86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (d) 91. (a)
92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (a) 97. (c)
98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (b) 101. (c) 102. (a) 103. (c)
104. (d) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (b)
110. (b) 111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (a) 114. (d) 115. (d)
116. (a) 117. (d) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (b) 121. (c)
122. (c) 123. (a) 124. (b) 125. (a)ENGLISH & REASONING
126. (c) 127. (d) 128. (c) 129. (a) 130. (c) 131. (a)
132. (c) 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (a) 136. (c) 137. (a)
138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (c) 141. (a) 142. (b) 143. (b)
144. (c) 145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (d)
150. (c)